Karin
Mar 12th 2007, 10:20 PM
I understand and believe that, because Jesus was the ultimate blood sacrifice, there is no longer a requirement to fulfill the sacrificial laws of the Old Testament.
But when Jesus said, "I have not come to abolish the law but to fulfill it...," what did that mean?
How do we decide whether or not an OT law is binding or not? I've heard people say that the "civil" and "ceremonial" laws are not binding but the "moral" laws are (although I believe that salvation is not contingent upon works but faith). However, I can find nowhere in Scripture that makes this distinction. Did we just decide for ourselves which laws were "moral"? Would it really please God if I did not wear mixed fabrics or did not eat pork? I have no conviction of needing to change these behaviors about myself.
I'm just trying to understand how the OT law applies to my life as a Christian.
intricatic
Mar 12th 2007, 11:10 PM
Hi! :wave:
My own personal opinion on this topic is a bit different than many people, I think. To begin with, i think it's a good idea to realize that the entire Law is one; it's a solid and united thing that either stands or falls together. However, individual laws were given for specific reasons. For instance, dietary purity Laws, which were reflections of an important teaching God was trying to impart on His people - not to consume other cultures or the practices of the cultures surrounding His chosen people. We learn this in Acts 11;
15 And as I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell upon them, as upon us at the beginning. 16 Then I remembered the word of the Lord, how He said, ‘John indeed baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’ 17 If therefore God gave them the same gift as He gave us when we believed on the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could withstand God?”
18 When they heard these things they became silent; and they glorified God, saying, “Then God has also granted to the Gentiles repentance to life.” (Acts 11)We can also deduce this from Numbers, Deuteronomy, and the gospels (plus elsewhere I may not be aware of at this point);
4 Now the mixed multitude who were among them yielded to intense craving; so the children of Israel also wept again and said: “Who will give us meat to eat? 5 We remember the fish which we ate freely in Egypt, the cucumbers, the melons, the leeks, the onions, and the garlic; 6 but now our whole being is dried up; there is nothing at all except this manna before our eyes!”
(Numbers 11)For this, you'd perhaps have to read the entire chapter of Numbers 11. The people complained about the manna which God had gifted them with and asked God to send them meat, which the Lord obliged - He also sent a spirit of prophecy onto some select people in the crowd who began to prophecy to warn the people not to eat the meat. When the people ignored the prophets, and ignored the warnings, Joshua came to ask Moses to silence them, to which he received in reply;
29 Then Moses said to him, “Are you zealous for my sake? Oh, that all the LORD’s people were prophets and that the LORD would put His Spirit upon them!” 30 And Moses returned to the camp, he and the elders of Israel. (Numbers 11)The subject the prophets were warning the people about is made clear when the meat arrives and all who eat from it die. Was God displeased simply because they wanted to eat meat, or was it something more than that? We read in Deuteronomy;
1 “Every commandment which I command you today you must be careful to observe, that you may live and multiply, and go in and possess the land of which the LORD swore to your fathers. 2 And you shall remember that the LORD your God led you all the way these forty years in the wilderness, to humble you and test you, to know what was in your heart, whether you would keep His commandments or not. 3 So He humbled you, allowed you to hunger, and fed you with manna which you did not know nor did your fathers know, that He might make you know that man shall not live by bread alone; but man lives by every word that proceeds from the mouth of the LORD.
(Deuteronomy 8)This is also quoted in Matthew 4 when Jesus is tempted by Satan in the desert;
1 Then Jesus was led up by the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted by the devil. 2 And when He had fasted forty days and forty nights, afterward He was hungry. 3 Now when the tempter came to Him, he said, “If You are the Son of God, command that these stones become bread.”
4 But He answered and said, “It is written, ‘Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceeds from the mouth of God.’”
(Matthew 4)Now, we've learned from Acts 11 that the food itself represented the Gentile nations surrounding Israel. The dietary purity laws were multifaceted in that they represented something (Gentile nations), they served as a method to test Israel as to her dedication to God, and it possibly served to act as a health code, so to speak. All the Law represented something; those who are dedicated to the Lord, who love the Lord, feast on His Word. The Law was never meant to impute righteousness to a believer, faith in God is what gives a person right standing before God, the Law is what teaches us about the love of God.
I am a gentile by birth, I was also brought into this world in separation from God - as we all are. When I came to God I was dead to Him in sin, He made me alive by the blood of the Lamb. Would it then be right to tell me to abstain from eating food that represented who I am by birth? All the Law stands united, or all the Law falls united; understanding why it was given and how it's to be followed is the hard part.
21 “ I hate, I despise your feast days,
And I do not savor your sacred assemblies.
22 Though you offer Me burnt offerings and your grain offerings,
I will not accept them,
Nor will I regard your fattened peace offerings.
23 Take away from Me the noise of your songs,
For I will not hear the melody of your stringed instruments.
24 But let justice run down like water,
And righteousness like a mighty stream.
(Amos 5)
34 But when the Pharisees heard that He had silenced the Sadducees, they gathered together. 35 Then one of them, a lawyer, asked Him a question, testing Him, and saying, 36 “Teacher, which is the great commandment in the law?”
37 Jesus said to him, “ ‘You shall love the LORD your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind.’ 38 This is the first and great commandment. 39 And the second is like it: ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.’ 40 On these two commandments hang all the Law and the Prophets.”
(Matthew 22)
petepet
Mar 12th 2007, 11:39 PM
Hi, The whole of the Law applies to us as much as it ever did as Jesus said. The difference lies in the fulfillment.
The moral aspect of that Law is binding on all Christians. The only point to remember is that while you must keep it, it is not in order to gain merit before God. It is in order to please God. That is why Jesus expanded on it and brought out its fuller meaning in the Sermon on the Mount.
The laws of cleanness and uncleanness were intended to give a relatively primitive people an awareness of reaching for the higher life and of avoiding all connected with death and dirt. Thus the clean animals, birds and fish were those which lived in a 'pure' environment They ate pasture (chewed the cud), they did not walk in places of death (they had cloven hooves), they were not birds of prey, they swam in the clear water. The unclean were those which did scrabble and walk or swim in places of death, amidst the dirt and in the desert or the mud. All this was teaching purity of life. With the coming of Jesus these lessons were no longer necessary in the same way and so the rules were altered. We follow His way of cleanness and uncleanness, the cleanness of the heart. But the principle still applies. We still if we are wise avoid dirty food, and dirty places. We should still live clean spiritual lives. But we recognise that God can make clean what was previously unclean as He pointed out to Peter. We no longer live under desert and primitive conditions eating raw untreated food.
I still make whole offerings and sin offerings and freewill offerings. It is just that I do it through the One Who is all these offerings combined. And I offer them daily as I come to God through Him. If we walk in the light as He is in the light the blood of Jesus Christ God's Son cleanses from all sin.
I still keep holy days for as a Christian every day is a holy day, separated off to the Lord and in which I am available for His service.
So the Law has not been abrogated. It has been 'filled to the full' The real has replaced the shadow.
Kahtar
Mar 12th 2007, 11:48 PM
I have no conviction of needing to change these behaviors about myself.
I'm just trying to understand how the OT law applies to my life as a Christian.
[Forasmuch as ye are] manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables of the heart. 2 Corinthians 3:3
It is the Holy Spirit that write the law in our hearts.
Beloved, if our heart condemn us not, [then] have we confidence toward God. And whatsoever we ask, we receive of him, because we keep his commandments, and do those things that are pleasing in his sight. And this is his commandment, That we should believe on the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and love one another, as he gave us commandment. And he that keepeth his commandments dwelleth in him, and he in him. And hereby we know that he abideth in us, by the Spirit which he hath given us.
1 John 3:21-24
Pilgrimtozion
Mar 13th 2007, 10:23 PM
As far as I understand it, the word "to fulfill" means to bring something to its ultimate purpose or goal, to bring something to completion. This what Jesus did to the Law - He brought the Law to its ultimate goal in the cross of Christ. Thus, the Law was abolished and in that sense no longer necessary because it found its fulfillment in the Cross of Calvary.
That answers at least part of the question; for the other part I don't have time so I will let somebody else take that. ;)
Firstfruits
Jul 5th 2007, 12:27 PM
I understand and believe that, because Jesus was the ultimate blood sacrifice, there is no longer a requirement to fulfill the sacrificial laws of the Old Testament.
But when Jesus said, "I have not come to abolish the law but to fulfill it...," what did that mean?
How do we decide whether or not an OT law is binding or not? I've heard people say that the "civil" and "ceremonial" laws are not binding but the "moral" laws are (although I believe that salvation is not contingent upon works but faith). However, I can find nowhere in Scripture that makes this distinction. Did we just decide for ourselves which laws were "moral"? Would it really please God if I did not wear mixed fabrics or did not eat pork? I have no conviction of needing to change these behaviors about myself.
I'm just trying to understand how the OT law applies to my life as a Christian.
For Christ explanation of " I have not come to abolish the law but to fulfil"
Please read St Luke 24:25-27,44-48 as he expounded to his disciples.
And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me. Then he opened he their understanding that they might understand the scriptures. And said unto them, Thus it is written , and thus it behooved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: and that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, begining at Jerusalem. And ye are witnesses of these things.
This is also what the apostles taught concerning the things which the prophets and Moses did say should come concerning Christ.
That Christ should suffer and that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and shew light unto the people and to the Gentiles. The Acts 26:22,23.
This is the Gospel of the Kingdom.
Sold Out
Jul 5th 2007, 06:02 PM
I understand and believe that, because Jesus was the ultimate blood sacrifice, there is no longer a requirement to fulfill the sacrificial laws of the Old Testament.
But when Jesus said, "I have not come to abolish the law but to fulfill it...," what did that mean?
How do we decide whether or not an OT law is binding or not? I've heard people say that the "civil" and "ceremonial" laws are not binding but the "moral" laws are (although I believe that salvation is not contingent upon works but faith). However, I can find nowhere in Scripture that makes this distinction. Did we just decide for ourselves which laws were "moral"? Would it really please God if I did not wear mixed fabrics or did not eat pork? I have no conviction of needing to change these behaviors about myself.
I'm just trying to understand how the OT law applies to my life as a Christian.
You have to put the law in perspective. The ceremonial and separational laws were for the nation of Israel ONLY. These laws were in place for two reasons:
1. To set the nation of Israel apart, since they would bring forth the Messiah.
2. To proclaim the gospel through the sacrificial system. (slaying a lamb - John 1:29)
Since the law did it's work by preserving Israel to bring forth the Messiah (Jesus), it was fulfilled. This is what Jesus meant.
We believe that the moral and civil laws apply to the NT church the same as they applied to the OT saints - because they are mentioned and taught by Jesus & the apostles. Jesus mentions adultery & murder in Matthew 5. Paul refers to the moral code in all of his letters. They were speaking to the NT church.
Of course we are not saved by keeping any law, because the law is cursed (Gal 3) in regards to salvation. The law points us to Christ, and once we are saved, should be our rule of living in order to show appreciation for the One who died for us, was buried & rose again.
matthew94
Jul 5th 2007, 09:09 PM
Categorizing the law is just a way to help us understand why Jesus included some laws in the new covenant and not others. Our job is not to categorize the law, but to follow Jesus' teaching. He has 'all authority' over the lives of Christians. Later, theologians began to realize that Jesus included 'moral' type laws in the New Covenant 'as was' so to speak, but ceremonial laws, for instance, were no longer neceessary 'as was' in light of Jesus' work.
DAISHI
Jul 5th 2007, 09:40 PM
Peter and Paul emphasized not putting the Gentiles underneath additional burdens outside of faith in Christ.
Firstfruits
Jul 6th 2007, 07:49 AM
Jesus was talking about the things that were written in the Law of Moses, the prophets and the psalms concerning himself, which he came to fulfil.
From the gospels we see that he was talking about the message of the kingdom and not the the law of commandments given to Israel through Moses. These are the things he came to fulfil, and there are yet more things that he will fulfil before all is complete. So the law and the prophets and the psalms concerning Christ is not yet fulfilled.
As Jesus said in Matthew 24:34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass till all things be fulfilled.
coffee cup
Jun 27th 2008, 11:06 PM
I understand and believe that, because Jesus was the ultimate blood sacrifice, there is no longer a requirement to fulfill the sacrificial laws of the Old Testament.
But when Jesus said, "I have not come to abolish the law but to fulfill it...," what did that mean?
How do we decide whether or not an OT law is binding or not? I've heard people say that the "civil" and "ceremonial" laws are not binding but the "moral" laws are (although I believe that salvation is not contingent upon works but faith). However, I can find nowhere in Scripture that makes this distinction. Did we just decide for ourselves which laws were "moral"? Would it really please God if I did not wear mixed fabrics or did not eat pork? I have no conviction of needing to change these behaviors about myself.
I'm just trying to understand how the OT law applies to my life as a Christian.
they didnt decide. God already decide this for them by placing the laws that should always be used in the hearts of all people.
theologians only recognized this fact of God also the laws that should always be used are given again in the new testament. So some one cant claim we must also use the old saturday law for the jews before Jesus BIRTH some how.
for instance THE LAW WRITTEN IN THE HEART all people know its wrong to steal from another, all people know its wrong to murder, all people know its wrong to take another persons wife or husband.
yes sin has blured these truth but they are still there accusing even the unbeliever of sin.
But the laws that were not meant for all people of all time were never wrriten in the hearts of men.
for instance all men know there is a God we must worship. That is written in our hearts . mGo to pagan lands and you see people worshiping all sorts of strange things because of God writing it in to the hearts of men that there is a god that should be worshipped.
But what was not written in to mens heart is what day to worship or rest on . Thats why pagans have all sorts of days and times they worship or rest on .
and thats also JUST ((((one ))))reason why we christians also know the saturday as sabbath was only for the jews of the days-- before-- the comming of Christ. AND SATURDAY AS SABBATH WAS NEVER MEANT FOR ALL TIMES. the saturday law was part of the old ceremonial law that God put into place the jews had to obey this old saturday ceremonial rest law or be killed for not obeying it.
This old ceremonial law Had it purpose it kept the Jew from whom Jesus would come away from the rest of humanity so scriptures prophesy about Jesus would be fullfilled .
Firefighter
Jul 27th 2009, 11:46 PM
Most people just pick and choose the ones they want to put others under bondage with...
Tony Cross
Sep 16th 2012, 05:56 AM
I believe the law, all of it, was fulfilled and done away with when Christ died on the cross. See Col. 2:14. The Bible clearly teaches we are no longer under the law, but under grace (the law of Christ). Also see Heb. 8:13. By saying the law was fulfilled, it is meant that law had served it's purpose. It was a "schoolmaster" to bring us to Christ. I agree with you in that I find nothing in the scriptures that says only the ceremonial law was abolished.
Read the book of Hebrews which gives a lot attention to this. Paul was constantly pleading with many of the Jews who would not let go of the old law. In Gal. 5:4 he went so far to tell them that if they continued to hold onto the law, they had FALLEN FROM GRACE.
Tony Cross
Sep 16th 2012, 06:17 AM
As far as I understand it, the word "to fulfill" means to bring something to its ultimate purpose or goal, to bring something to completion. This what Jesus did to the Law - He brought the Law to its ultimate goal in the cross of Christ. Thus, the Law was abolished and in that sense no longer necessary because it found its fulfillment in the Cross of Calvary.
That answers at least part of the question; for the other part I don't have time so I will let somebody else take that. ;)
I believe this is a good answer.
JohnDB
Sep 17th 2012, 12:02 PM
OK...I happen to know this answer.
I was thinking posting a thread on this later today but you beat me to it yesterday.
The answer is in the Book of Hebrews...about when Abraham/God set up the sacrificial system and God walked the blood path.
When Abraham split the animals and God walked the blood path made between the animals it was a form of a contract that the performance of the Contract was now upon God for fulfilling the Contract. So when the Israelis sinned and brought a sacrifice to God the flow of blood from the animal was to remind God of His promise and Contract with Abraham and not to cancel the contract because of their lack of faith and committing such sins. It wasn't so much a "pay for play" system as it is sometimes perceived to be. Providing animals for sacrifice and ensuring that they were blemish free (in accordance with God being perfect and holy) spoke to the faith of a Messiah to come.
The Ten Commandments and the whole of the 613 laws were all about faith. Granted there was a performance of these Laws but mainly they were physically performed to demonstrate your faith in God and that He was going to provide the Messiah that was going to come. In Hebrew The Sabbath Day was always written in singular fashion...not a collective singular either. (That part of speech doesn't exist in Hebrew) There was only one Sabbath Day and that was the Day that Jesus was crucified. All of the Saturday's that they rested on was again to show faith that God was going to provide the Messiah and then there would be rest from this Contract of Faith with God.
The rest of the Laws were similar. Every part of Law was to set you apart in heart and appearance from the rest of the world. The Ten Commandments mostly referred to heart action and feelings. IOW if you wished to lie you were in violation of the Law whether you actually lied or not. Jesus reiterated this principle quite clearly when talking about looking at a woman with lust in your heart. They always were this way...if you didn't Love enough you were in violation of the OT Law.
In the Ancient Near Eastern cultures the Israelis were to be different...not only in heart condition but also appearance. They were not to shave their beards in a particular fashion or to wear clothing similar to other cultures in the area. When Sampson lost his last appearance of being an Israelite (hair cut) he lost his appointment as being special as well. God could not forgive his appearance or heart any longer. Every aspect of their life was different from the food that they ate and the dishes they could eat to the clothes that they would wear to the Holidays that they would observe. When they came out of Egypt they had no real culture as a society...they had been accustomed to being naked and ignorant. Now they were assigned a style and manner of clothes and were to have a complete culture of their own....even an official language complete with reading and writing. (only high brow societies at that time read and wrote a written language).
Then the Law about honoring your father and mother. There is no word for Grandfather or Grandmother in Hebrew. This commandment was in reference to Abraham and Sarah. They were the ones that had the relationship with God...not you. But you as an Israelite could share in their relationship by honoring them in your everyday life...and across time (a grand bit of it) you could give God the same proper worship that the patriarchs did that pleased God. So you couldn't start a new one because you didn't have a relationship with God. But you would see to it that your children carried on the same traditions. The area known as the Promised Land had seen many periods of urbanization and DE-urbanization. Whole cultures and societies disappeared without a trace. The Israelites still exist to this day as this culture that God created never once really went away. They have remained the same for thousands of years with hard wiring for the holy land. No one else can claim what they do.
but I digress.
The Laws of Old may have had a performance but the intent and purpose was the same yesterday as God's Laws for us today do. It is all about our faith...and whatever it takes to show that we have faith in God and what He has promised...and of our personal relationship with God.
Boo
Sep 18th 2012, 07:16 AM
The reason that we have determined that the law is separated into categories is because of what the compliance to those laws achieved.
Some laws determined how you treat others. Some laws determined how you approach God and obtain forgiveness for sins, and established a method of supporting those who cared for a worked in the tabernacles and temples. Sill others dealt with health and cleanliness issues. Violation of some could result in death while others told us how to repay for offenses toward others.
Now we are given a way to approach God and obtain release from sins. We were told by Paul to support those who minister to us - we no longer have Levites to support. We are left with those laws about how we treat others and possibly those which tell us how to care for ourselves. Fortunately, for us, we have been released from those which were replaced by the sacrifice that Jesus made for us.
Romans 10:
1 Brothers, my heart's desire and prayer to God for them is that they may be saved.
2 For I bear them witness that they have a zeal for God, but not according to knowledge.
3 For, being ignorant of the righteousness of God, and seeking to establish their own, they did not submit to God's righteousness.
4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.
John 8:32
Sep 18th 2012, 05:20 PM
Jesus was talking about the things that were written in the Law of Moses, the prophets and the psalms concerning himself, which he came to fulfil.
From the gospels we see that he was talking about the message of the kingdom and not the the law of commandments given to Israel through Moses. These are the things he came to fulfil, and there are yet more things that he will fulfil before all is complete. So the law and the prophets and the psalms concerning Christ is not yet fulfilled.
As Jesus said in Matthew 24:34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass till all things be fulfilled.
Mat 24:30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
Mat 24:31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
Mat 24:32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh:
Mat 24:33 So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors.
Mat 24:34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.
Helps if you read more of it, this has not occurred yet, notice verse 31 and put this together with...
1Th 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
1Th 4:16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
1Th 4:17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.
1Co 15:20 But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept.
1Co 15:21 For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead.
1Co 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.
1Co 15:23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
Christ has not returned yet, so all this is not fulfilled.
John 8:32
Sep 18th 2012, 05:26 PM
I believe the law, all of it, was fulfilled and done away with when Christ died on the cross. See Col. 2:14. The Bible clearly teaches we are no longer under the law, but under grace (the law of Christ). Also see Heb. 8:13. By saying the law was fulfilled, it is meant that law had served it's purpose. It was a "schoolmaster" to bring us to Christ. I agree with you in that I find nothing in the scriptures that says only the ceremonial law was abolished.
If I come around tonight for a "date" with your wife and bring my truck to clean out the valuables from your house and then lie about who did it, you won't mind then will you? For after all, the law is done away.
Read the book of Hebrews which gives a lot attention to this. Paul was constantly pleading with many of the Jews who would not let go of the old law. In Gal. 5:4 he went so far to tell them that if they continued to hold onto the law, they had FALLEN FROM GRACE.
Grace, the unmerited pardon for our sins is not license to continue in them, or is it?
Rom 6:1 What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?
And, of course, Christ had no idea what He was talking about...
Mat 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
Mat 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
Mat 5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
Mat 19:16 And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life?
Mat 19:17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
Joh 14:15 If ye love me, keep my commandments.
Joh 15:10 If ye keep my commandments, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and abide in his love.
Rev 22:14 Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
Hawkins
Sep 19th 2012, 03:02 AM
Romans 3:31
Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law.
The New Covenant was given because we can't abide by the old covenant we are subject to, not because we don't need to abide by law. The difference made is that law itself lost its effect in persecution for someone who is under the New Covenant. Under the New Covenant, people (Christians) are judged by Jesus Christ Himself instead of Law.
We are not born with the New Covenant which is gift we need to choose later when growing up. We are however born with the law attached to a covenant which we subject to. As for the Jews, they should be born with Mosaic Law and should be subject to the covenant brought them by Moses. The Gentiles are born with the Law in heart which is supposed to be with Noah's covenant.
They need to uphold the law unless specified otherwise by the Bible, that is, if any part of NT specifies that the Jews no longer need abide by a certain law, which means, a Jew under the New Covenant no longer needs to abide by that law.
The only difference is how you failed, not how you obey. In OT if you failed you are dead. In NT if you failed you are forgivable (as judged by Jesus Christ). Christians are above law because they are no longer judged by Law, they are judged by Jesus Christ instead.
However, you have one more "law" to obey if you are subject to the New Covenant, which is Jesus Christ teaching. As a result, "obeying law" is re-prioritized. The most important is to obey Christ teaching as this will directly lead to your salvation. Thus faith and repentance is the most crucial as they determines whether you are saved or not. On the other hand as part of Christ teaching Jesus said that you need to obey the commandments while Paul said that you need to uphold the law.
To me, the 'food and circumcision' argument more or less says that the gentiles don't need to obey Mosaic Law instead of saying that the Jews or Gentiles don't need to obey law.
My 2 cents.
BroRog
Sep 20th 2012, 01:38 AM
I understand and believe that, because Jesus was the ultimate blood sacrifice, there is no longer a requirement to fulfill the sacrificial laws of the Old Testament.
But when Jesus said, "I have not come to abolish the law but to fulfill it...," what did that mean?
How do we decide whether or not an OT law is binding or not? I've heard people say that the "civil" and "ceremonial" laws are not binding but the "moral" laws are (although I believe that salvation is not contingent upon works but faith). However, I can find nowhere in Scripture that makes this distinction. Did we just decide for ourselves which laws were "moral"? Would it really please God if I did not wear mixed fabrics or did not eat pork? I have no conviction of needing to change these behaviors about myself.
I'm just trying to understand how the OT law applies to my life as a Christian.For a Jew living in Israel attempting to keep the covenant there is no distinction between "moral" and "civil" and "ceremonial". For one thing, to violate the civil law was immoral and so was a violation of the ceremonial law. To disobey the commandments and ordinances of God is to act immorally.
Having said that, theologians are attempting to grapple with the doctrine of salvation by grace and not by works of the law. What are the works of the law? The works of the law are the ritual practices contained in the Torah.
The Torah, or the Law contains a set of laws from which we can see the moral vision of God. All human beings are obligated to obey, copy, emulate, and strive to live according to God's moral vision. But not all human beings are obligated to keep the law according to the Jewish set of rules and rituals. The Jews living under the covenant were required to give expression to God's moral vision through ritual but the rest of humanity was not obligated to give expression to the moral vision of God through those same rituals.
In Paul's day, it was obvious that the covenant had been broken and that the nation was no longer honoring the covenant, so he felt free to practice or not practice his Judaism according to his mission to spread the Gospel to all people. He says that he acts Jewishly around the Jews in order to gain a hearing with them, but he acts like a Gentile around Gentiles in order to gain a hearing with them.
So, to answer your question. We are to give expression to God's moral vision in the way we live our life everyday, but we are not obligated to give expression to that moral vision through religious ritual.
keck553
Sep 20th 2012, 03:21 AM
Easy. The laws you don't like are ceremonial. The ones you like are moral.
Dani H
Sep 20th 2012, 03:37 AM
I'm just trying to understand how the OT law applies to my life as a Christian.
It doesn't. We are under a New Covenant with better promises, and the law we follow is that of love. If we love others, we have fulfilled that law.
The Lawgiver has suspended the old (being that He is above any law and can do that) and replaced it with the new.
No sense waffling around between two different covenants.
Barelohim
Mar 21st 2013, 02:41 PM
Right! And the * Law of Faith*, and the * Law of Liberty*, can only be kept as one abides in Him, and He abides in them. IF one thinks they can do anything, in themselves, they have missed the mark of the high calling one has in Christ.... That is why He set the bar so high. We can't! HE can! It is He who works these things out in us, through the nature that He gave us, of Himself. The Divine Natue, the very *seed* of God lives in the believer. But is it still in *seed* form, or has it been given the opportunity to start its growth?
Any branch in itself cannot bear fruit. But as it abides in the Vine, receiving the life of the Vine it has opportunity to bring forth fruit ( Christlikeness )... John 15. But please notice that there are branches in the Vine, that aren't producing the fruit of the Vine,and are near to be cut off and thrown in the fire.
So lets find out why some of these branches aren't producing, where they should by now..
Sincerely In Christ
BarElohim.
Liquid Tension
Mar 21st 2013, 09:31 PM
This thread has more lives than a cat. :lol:
That being said, I may have to go back and read through this thread.
LandShark
Mar 21st 2013, 09:41 PM
I understand and believe that, because Jesus was the ultimate blood sacrifice, there is no longer a requirement to fulfill the sacrificial laws of the Old Testament.
But when Jesus said, "I have not come to abolish the law but to fulfill it...," what did that mean?
How do we decide whether or not an OT law is binding or not? I've heard people say that the "civil" and "ceremonial" laws are not binding but the "moral" laws are (although I believe that salvation is not contingent upon works but faith). However, I can find nowhere in Scripture that makes this distinction. Did we just decide for ourselves which laws were "moral"? Would it really please God if I did not wear mixed fabrics or did not eat pork? I have no conviction of needing to change these behaviors about myself.
I'm just trying to understand how the OT law applies to my life as a Christian.
Regardless of how you interpret the OT as pertaining to your life, I want to throw this out. It is very plainly stated that the whole Torah/Law/Instructions were one entity. MAN has separated out what he believes are ceremonial and what he sees as moral commands. But God did not, not by any stretch. Furthermore, most who say the ceremonial is dead ask for tithes which is very ceremonial, and the same who says the 10 commandments apply because they are moral... says don't keep the Sabbath but it is included in the 10! I see a lack of consistency in that line of reasoning.
In my view we have 613 +/- commands. Most can't be done because of many reasons. Some of those reasons are:
1. We don't live in the land and there are many commands tied us being there
2. There is no Temple and there are many commands tied to having a Temple
3. We live in the nations under secular rule not a Torah based society
4. It isn't likely you are a descendent of Aaron so the many commands tied to priests don't apply
5. You're a woman, commands given to men only don't apply to you (and vice versa)
As a family and as a congregation, we follow all that are left as best we can and if we fail we fail. We aren't saved by keeping commandments, but I do personally believe that the saved are to cease living according to their own understanding of righteousness, and instead live according to God's. Blessings on whatever you do.
Barelohim
Mar 21st 2013, 10:41 PM
When the OT laws are run through the cross, many are done away, some are changed, and some come through unchanged. And noticeably absent is the fact that the OT was not given to the Gentiles, but to the Jews.. And also, from Genesis to Revelations, the bible is a *spiritual * book, and must be understood with * spiritual * understanding, not literal. 1 Corinthians 2: 12 But we received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is from God; that we might know the things that were freely given to us of God.
13 Which things also we speak, not in words which man’s wisdom teacheth, but which the Spirit teacheth; combining spiritual things with spiritual words .
Sincerely In Christ
Bar.