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Thread: Is it a sin to belive in other religions?

  1. #16
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    Quote Originally Posted by Steven3 View Post
    Hi Zorgblar

    All humans are sinful whether they believe in God and the Bible or not.

    And believing in pagan gods is an additional sin.

    As far as hell goes, it depends which hell you mean, Sheol-Hades (the grave) or Hinnom-Gehenna (hellfire), but if you mean the NT concept of hell of fire then looking at the NT verses it's appears that it's primarily false believers (Jewish and Christian) who go to hellfire, not pagans.

    God bless
    Steven
    No, it's all who don't believe that Jesus is the atonement for their sins as John 3:16-18 and many other verses tell us. We are either released from our sins by accepting Christ's atonement for them or we have to pay for them ourselves in hell. There is no middle ground.

  2. #17
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    Quote Originally Posted by IamRyan View Post
    I might be misinterpreting your post, but if you are saying people who haven't heard of Christ won't go to hell, that is wrong. Everyone will have some sort of knowledge of Him.
    Perhaps a person can get to belief of God in general by reason alone without revalation, but Jesus in particular, can you explain how one could realize that?

  3. #18
    Hi Joyfilled
    Quote Originally Posted by Joyfilled View Post
    No, it's all who don't believe that Jesus is the atonement for their sins as John 3:16-18 and many other verses tell us.
    John 3:16 only talks about "perish" not "hell" which was Zorgblar's question. Note that the people Jesus says "I never knew you" to in Matt7 are Christians, and there's no mention in any of the 7 NT Gehenna verses of Hindus and Buddhists being destroyed in the judgment fire. In fact the only reference to non-Christians and non-Jews being judged by Christ at all is one verse in 1 Peter, which I'm not going to reference because people should be able to find it
    God bless
    Steven

  4. #19
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    Quote Originally Posted by GothicAngel View Post
    Perhaps a person can get to belief of God in general by reason alone without revalation, but Jesus in particular, can you explain how one could realize that?
    Human wisdom cannot lead a person to God.

    1 Cor 1:20-25
    Where is the wise? Where is the scribe? Where is the disputer of this age? Has not God made foolish the wisdom of this world? 21 For since, in the wisdom of God , the world through wisdom did not know God , it pleased God through the foolishness of the message preached to save those who believe. 22 For Jews request a sign, and Greeks seek after wisdom; 23 but we preach Christ crucified, to the Jews a stumbling block and to the Greeks foolishness, 24 but to those who are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God . 25 Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men, and the weakness of God is stronger than men.
    NKJV
    Love In Christ,
    Tanya







  5. #20
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    Quote Originally Posted by TanyaP View Post
    Human wisdom cannot lead a person to God.
    Through reason alone, Plato arrived at the conclusion that there was one God, a perfectly good, immaterial, immutable, etc God. He also came to believe that there would have to be a mediator between perfect God and imperfect man.

  6. #21
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    Quote Originally Posted by GothicAngel View Post
    Through reason alone, Plato arrived at the conclusion that there was one God, a perfectly good, immaterial, immutable, etc God. He also came to believe that there would have to be a mediator between perfect God and imperfect man.
    Jesus said no man can come to Him unless the Father draw him. Peter said Jesus was the son of God and Jesus responded "Flesh and blood has not revealed this to you but my father which is in heaven".

    If Plato learned truth, it was not through reason alone but through God teaching him and revealing to him through natural means.
    "May the Lamb that was slain receive the just reward for His sufferings." A quote by Moravian missionary that sold himself (along with a friend) into slavery to reach those that the slave owner prevented from hearing the gospel.

    May I live for Him and not for me.

  7. #22
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    Quote Originally Posted by Steven3 View Post
    Hi Joyfilled John 3:16 only talks about "perish" not "hell" which was Zorgblar's question. Note that the people Jesus says "I never knew you" to in Matt7 are Christians, and there's no mention in any of the 7 NT Gehenna verses of Hindus and Buddhists being destroyed in the judgment fire. In fact the only reference to non-Christians and non-Jews being judged by Christ at all is one verse in 1 Peter, which I'm not going to reference because people should be able to find it
    God bless
    Steven
    Not to be argumentative, but those in Matt 7 claimed to be Christians but were not. Christians, by definition, go to heaven. His point is that not every one who claims to be of Him is of Him.

    I think hindus and buddists could be classified as unbelievers in Christ. And scripture speaks often of those that don't believe in Christ/God and what will happen to them.
    "May the Lamb that was slain receive the just reward for His sufferings." A quote by Moravian missionary that sold himself (along with a friend) into slavery to reach those that the slave owner prevented from hearing the gospel.

    May I live for Him and not for me.

  8. #23
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    Quote Originally Posted by GothicAngel View Post
    Perhaps a person can get to belief of God in general by reason alone without revalation, but Jesus in particular, can you explain how one could realize that?
    No because as 1 Corinthisns 2:14 & 2 Corinthians 4:4 explain, no one can understand God without the indwelling Holy Spirit. That's because as God tells us, human wisdom is foolishness in God's sight.

  9. #24
    Hi Brother Mark
    Quote Originally Posted by Brother Mark View Post
    Not to be argumentative, but those in Matt 7 claimed to be Christians but were not.
    But isn't that our Lord Jesus' point? That someone can be "Christian", going to church every Sunday and being very busy with their works, and he never knew them. It could be you or me, God forbid, but we don't know.

    21 “Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. 22 On that day many will say to me, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and do many mighty works in your name?’ 23 And then will I declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from me, you workers of lawlessness.’

    Christians, by definition, go to heaven.
    Is that a scriptural definition? Because I don't think Jesus is referring to these people who say "Lord, Lord" going to heaven when he says "on that day" in 7:22. And when is that day? This "on that day" relates back to Zorglblar's OP.
    God bless
    Steven

  10. #25
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    Quote Originally Posted by IamRyan View Post
    I might be misinterpreting your post, but if you are saying people who haven't heard of Christ won't go to hell, that is wrong. Everyone will have some sort of knowledge of Him.
    Correct. The bible tells us this.

    "That was the true Light (Jesus), which lighteth every man that cometh into the world." John 1:9

    "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:" Romans 1:20

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