
Originally Posted by
graceforme
This is one of the reasons I don't endorse newer versions of the Bible. If a JW came to someone's door who uses one of these versions that you mentioned, and offered that argument, they would be able to show the person the error of their thinking. And it would validate the JW theory. I don't know if the JW's use versions other than KJV. I've never given that much thought till now.
We need to be strong in our study of Scripture so that we have an answer for them when they "prove" that they are correct in their thinking. Too many of us basically know what we believe, but if confronted with someone who disputes the truth, we don't know where to go to show them WHY we believe what we believe. And this is when the JW's can "beat us up" with Scripture.
God Bless.
Grace, I found this information concerning "begotten son". Since you
are familiar with Greek, would you agree with this information? Thanks!
Oh before I forget, when using the greek lettering for words, could you please translate in english like they do in their meanings? Thanks Again!
The basic Greek word for "only-begotten" used for Jesus and Isaac is mo·no·ge·nes´, from mo´nos, meaning "only," and gi´no·mai, a root word meaning "to generate," "to become (come into being)," Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance.
mo·no·ge·nes´ is defined as: "Only born, only begotten, i.e. an only child."—A Greek and English Lexicon of the New Testament, by E. Robinson.
The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, edited by Gerhard Kittel, "[Mo·no·ge·nes´] means ‘of sole descent,’ i.e., without brothers or sisters." John 1:18; 3:16, 18; and 1 John 4:9, "the relation of Jesus is not just compared to that of an only child to its father. It is the relation of the only-begotten to the Father." ?
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