1. Paul says the Law is abolished in Ephesians 2;
2. Now while we may disagree over exactly what this means, it certainly must mean that there is at least some rule "X" that has been abolished. Let's say that rule is "Thou shalt not do A".
3. Let's say that X is abolished at time = t1.
4. Fred does A at some time after t1.
5. Fred has not sinned, since he did A after the time that X was abolished.
Now lets transpose this back into Jesus situation. Let's suppose that, for example, the "working on the Sabbath" law was abolished before Jesus did the thing in the wheat fields. Jesus is indeed breaking this aw, but is not sinning since this law has already been abolished.
You seem to be arguing that if Jesus breaks the Torah, He must be committing sin. But this cannot be true in respect to those elements of the Torah that have already been abolished at the time Jesus performs the "law-breaking" action.
So there really in no problem in asserting that Jesus breaks a particular rule of Torah, if a case can be made that the rule in question has already been abolished when Jesus "breaks" it.