What is the difference???
Scripture and opinion.
What is the difference???
Scripture and opinion.
Could you please provide scripture as to where both are referred to. Thanks.
Exodus 3:2-6 2 There the angel of the LORD appeared to him in flames of fire from within a bush. Moses saw that though the bush was on fire it did not burn up
Acts 8:26 But an angel of the Lord spoke to Philip saying.
See if this helps. From the ESV Study Bible.
"Ex. 3:2 Where the angel of the Lord appears in the OT, he is often described as acting or speaking in a manner that suggests he is more than simply an angel or messenger and that he is closely identified with God himself (e.g., Gen. 22:11–18). Here he appears to Moses in a flame of fire, which is a sign of God's presence throughout the events narrated in the book of Exodus: in the pillar of fire and cloud that leads and protects the Israelites (Ex. 13:21–22); in the signs of God's presence on Mount Sinai (19:18); and in the tabernacle (40:38). The angel also protects Israel when they come out of Egypt (14:19), and God promises that he will go before Israel into the land of Canaan (23:20; 33:2). In 3:4 this angel of God is identified as “the Lord” and “God.”
Not sure about the Acts angel. But if you read in verse 29 it says the "Spirit". So it may very well be the same "Angel" from the OT scripture.
Glad I could be of some service.
While I can see how these conclusions seem to fit some Scriptures, what does one do when they come across passages, such as the following?
Zechariah 1:10 And the man that stood among the myrtle trees answered and said, These are they whom the LORD hath sent to walk to and fro through the earth.
11 And they answered the angel of the LORD that stood among the myrtle trees, and said, We have walked to and fro through the earth, and, behold, all the earth sitteth still, and is at rest.
12 Then the angel of the LORD answered and said, O LORD of hosts, how long wilt thou not have mercy on Jerusalem and on the cities of Judah, against which thou hast had indignation these threescore and ten years?
13 And the LORD answered the angel that talked with me with good words and comfortable words.
In this passage it can be seen that the angel of the Lord, and the Lord, that these are 2 seperate beings. Also notice verse 12..the Lord of hosts...this was a title throughout the OT belonging to the Lord Himself.
Psalms 84:12 O LORD of hosts, blessed is the man that trusteth in thee
This is one of many many Scriptures indentifying the Lord of hosts as the Lord Himself. I'm certain no one would argue this, but my point is that the angel of the Lord was conversing with the Lord of hosts in Zechariah 1.
Genesis 16:11 And the angel of the LORD said unto her, Behold, thou art with child, and shalt bear a son, and shalt call his name Ishmael; because the LORD hath heard thy affliction
If the angel of the Lord were the Lord Himself, then this verse should have read something like this:
And the LORD said unto her, Behold, thou art with child, and shalt bear a son, and shalt call his name Ishmael; because the LORD hath heard thy affliction
But it doesn't read like that, it states that the angel of the Lord said those things.
1 Chronicles 21:15 And God sent an angel unto Jerusalem to destroy it: and as he was destroying, the LORD beheld, and he repented him of the evil, and said to the angel that destroyed, It is enough, stay now thine hand. And the angel of the LORD stood by the threshingfloor of Ornan the Jebusite.
Here we see that the angel of the Lord was an angel God sent unto Jerusalem to destroy it.
Last edited by divaD; Jul 20th 2009 at 06:20 PM. Reason: mispellings...of course..
Mainly I was addressing the scriptures that TMS referenced. I know you can't use a broad brush and apply one meaning of a particular verse and use them for all. You bring up some great questions. Which I don't have the answers to. I'll do some research later on. Thanks for the input.
Last edited by -SEEKING-; Jul 20th 2009 at 06:25 PM. Reason: Fixed typo
The appearances of the angel of the Lord cease after the incarnation of Christ. Angels are mentioned numerous times in the New Testament, but “the angel of the Lord” is never mentioned in the New Testament. It is possible that appearances of the angel of the Lord were manifestations of Jesus before His incarnation. Jesus declared Himself to be existent “before Abraham” (John 8:58), so it is logical that He would be active and manifest in the world. Whatever the case, whether the angel of the Lord was a pre-incarnate appearance of Christ (Christophany) or an appearance of God the Father (theophany), it is highly likely that the phrase “the angel of the Lord” usually identifies a physical appearance of God.
Good stuff TMS. I have heard that before. Thanks for sharing.
The Angel of the Lord in the Old Testament is the Pre-incarnate Christ, Jesus Himself.
It was Jesus standing in the burning bush talking to Moses.
You must still read the text carefully and observe the context of what is happening at the Time.
If the individual worships The Angel of the Lord and is not rebuked for it then it is Jesus Himself because He is worthy of worship.
No man has seen God at any time.
God is a Spirit, and you must worship him in spirit and in truth.
The NKJV Bible capitalizes Angel indicating Deity.
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