For it is written...

[Radagast]

Romans 3:10-18 gives a series of not-quite-verbatim quotes from the Old Testament (Psalms 14:1-3/53:1-3; 5:9; 140:3; 10:7; Isaiah 59:7-8; Psalm 36:1). For example:

Rom 3:12 All have turned away, they have together become worthless; there is no one who does good, not even one = πάντες ἐξέκλιναν, ἅμα ἠχρεώθησαν: οὐκ ἔστιν ὁ ποιῶν χρηστότητα, οὐκ ἔστιν ἕως ἑνός = πάντες ἐξέκλιναν, ἅμα ἠχρεώθησαν: οὐκ ἔστιν ποιῶν ἀγαθόν, οὐκ ἔστιν ἕως ἑνός = Ps 53:3 (52:4 in the Greek Septuagint)

Now I'm not sure if Paul is quoting the Septuagint (the Greek Old Testament of those days) from memory (and possibly substituting a synonymous word), or if he's making his own translation from the Hebrew. It doesn't really matter, seems to me.

[pekoe]

Hi Try The Spirits.

Yes, I do see that as well. Solomon's writing in Ecc.

7:20 is additional evidence that there are righteous people. "For there isn't a righteous person on the earth who (they do exist) does good and never sins."

Actually, Solomons point is that there isn’t a righteous person on earth. To look at the verse your way, it would read,

“For there is a righteous person on earth …..who sins.”

The concept of righteousness from the Hebrew scriptures is different from that of Paul. Righteousness is not about being sinless. It is about obeying God's Law.

If one could obey all of Gods law he would be sinless.

Thank you pekoe for the reference in De. 6:25. I haven't seen that before.

It’s an impossible proposition. All we can do is try and throw ourselves on Gods mercy, who is Jesus.

[TryTheSpirits]

Hello pekoe,

To look at the verse your way, it would read,

“For there is a righteous person on earth …..who sins.”

I'm not in agreement with the re-ordered version of the sentence structure. Look again at the sentence. "There is not a righteous man on earth who does what is right and never sins."

Solomon follows up with a description of the subject (a righteous man). How can he describe something that does not exist?

Here is rough example of the sentence structure. To avoid bias, I'm going to change the subject matter but keep the structure intact as much as possible.
Example:
"There is not a car mechanic on earth who never gets dirty."

Yes, this is a shortened version leaving out "who does what is right", but the key is that the subject matter of the sentence exists with it's descriptor. It is not saying there are no mechanics, it is a describer or characteristic of all mechanics.

Maybe an English teacher that is skilled in diagramming sentences can give some insight? I believe you will see that Solomon is indeed describing a righteous man.

If Solomon was saying that there are no righteous men/women, then the smartest and wisest man on earth would be in error.

Look who was righteous:

Noah was righteous.
-Gen 7:1 And the LORD said unto Noah, Come thou and all thy house into the ark; for thee have I seen righteous before me in this generation.

Zacharias and Elizabeth were righteous (by following the entire Law)
Luk 1:6 And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.

Jesus said that where many righteous men.
Mat 13:17 For verily I say unto you, That many prophets and righteous [men] have desired to see [those things] which ye see, and have not seen [them]; and to hear [those things] which ye hear, and have not heard [them].

Jesus called Able a righteous man
Mat 23:35 That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar.

Take a look at a Strong's Concordance with a KVJ bible and look up righteous. Research the subject matter of the verses that you find.

If one could obey all of Gods law he would be sinless.

The topic of this post is not about being sinless, it is about being righteous and that righteous men did exist. Ezekiel taught that one is righteous by obeying the Law as well as Moses. Paul taught differently.

It’s an impossible proposition.

Moses as you know wrote De.6:25. To add to his words and insert that it is an impossible proposition is danger of breaking De. 4:2.

Hello Radagast,

Psalms 14:1-3/53:1-3; 5:9; 140:3; 10:7; Isaiah 59:7-8; Psalm 36:1

All of the references above are talking about evil people that are against God, not all people. It does not say no one (all people) is righteous.

In my research and on this post I have wrote and re-wrote that the evidence is overwhelming that there are many righteous people in the bible contrary to what Paul and the modern Christian church promotes.

Thank you again for the kind responses and I hope that I did not come across as attacking any of the posters. You all have been very gracious.

[Dani H]

What is the point of this line of questions, if you don't mind me asking? What has this to do with inquiring about Jesus and His death and resurrection and removal of your sin?

[Radagast]

Noah was righteous.
-Gen 7:1 And the LORD said unto Noah, Come thou and all thy house into the ark; for thee have I seen righteous before me in this generation.

It depends what you mean by "righteous." The essence of what Paul (and Jesus) is teaching is that nobody can keep the law perfectly. Noah, for example, behaved rather badly after leaving the ark (Gen 9:21).

David is described as "righteous" in the Old Testament (1 Kings 3:6), but he didn't keep the law perfectly -- he was an adulterer and a murderer.

Paul is quoting the Old Testament here in Romans to reinforce a point previously made by Jesus in the Sermon on the Mount -- that God sets the bar higher than most people thought, and that therefore nobody meets God's standard.

[pekoe]

Hi Try.

Maybe an English teacher that is skilled in diagramming sentences can give some insight? I believe you will see that Solomon is indeed describing a righteous man.

If Solomon was saying that there are no righteous men/women, then the smartest and wisest man on earth would be in error.

He would be, if he didn't include the clause, "who never sins". This is why there isn't a righteous man made righteous by the law, for by the law is the knowledge of sin. Nobody said righteous people don't exist.

Look who was righteous:

Noah was righteous.
-Gen 7:1 And the LORD said unto Noah, Come thou and all thy house into the ark; for thee have I seen righteous before me in this generation.

Noah preceded the law, therefore the law itself does not make righteous.

Zacharias and Elizabeth were righteous (by following the entire Law)
Luk 1:6 And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.

Maybe they understood the real function of the law.

Jesus called Able a righteous man

Again, preceded the law.

The topic of this post is not about being sinless, it is about being righteous and that righteous men did exist. Ezekiel taught that one is righteous by obeying the Law as well as Moses. Paul taught differently.

Every Jew believes sinlessness and righteousness are two different things because nobody can live up to the laws standard;

"Didn't Moses give you the law? Yet none of you keep the law..." Jn.7:19

Sure, Ezekiel taught that people will be righteous if they obey the law. The problem is nobody obeys it the way Moses commanded. You can teach that Moses didn't really mean anyone had to follow the law perfectly, but that's what he taught. The Bible says the soul that sins will die. Death is punishment for sin and sin is the transgression of the law.

Moses as you know wrote De.6:25. To add to his words and insert that it is an impossible proposition is danger of breaking De. 4:2.

I'm not adding to Moses words. I'm examining my own heart. I'm glad you think you can do it. I don't believe you, but I'm happy for you.

[TryTheSpirits]

To everyone reading this post, I apologize if I my points are unclear or get too wordy. I'm also sorry if I didn't answer everyone's post. It's difficult when there are multiple people posting.

Nobody said righteous people don't exist.

Actually, Paul did. Rom 3:10. I got a flyer in the mail from a Christian church stating the exact same concept. That "no one is righteous."

You have presented your opinion but not definitive proof. I believe Solomon (Ecc 7:20) is stating the opposite because he lines up with the rest of the Hebrew scriptures, plus Jesus taught the same idea that there are indeed righteous men (after Mosaic Law). It is also interesting to note that if this is truly Solomon saying that there are no righteous men, then why is this not used as a reference for Romans 3:10? Instead, seminaries teach; Psalm 14:1-3; 53:1-3, Psalm 5:9, Psalm 140:3, Psalm 10:7, Prov 1:16; Isaiah 59:7-8 and Psalm 36:1. All those verses are talking about the evil and adversaries of God, not all people.

This will be my last reply on this topic, because I don't believe an objective answer can be reached on this specific topic. The view of Paul is what is highly esteemed, not the view of Jesus. Why? Because even the words of Jesus are dismissed.

Example:
Jesus - "For verily I say unto you, That many prophets and righteous [men] have desired to see [those things] which ye see, and have not seen; and to hear which ye hear, and have not heard." He said that there are many righteous men here. If there were not righteous men, then Jesus in not being truthful. He'd be using pretense instead of truth to make his point. The righteous men Jesus is talking about are post Mosiac Law.

Noah preceded the law, therefore the law itself does not make righteous.

Post Mosaic Law - This brings up an interesting point, God's Law has always existed. Just because there are righteous men obeying God's Law before Mount Sinai does not make them any less righteous.

Look at the Garden of Eden. There was one Law. The Adversary's #1 goal is to break that Law. He used distortions with concepts of lies to ultimately reach this goal. Look at Cain and Able. God's Law even back then was not to murder and Cain knew it. Cain also broke God's Law by his unworthy sacrifice which started his murderous rampage.

I had originally wanted to find definitive proof of this concept that no one is righteous Here's what I have found to date:
-James 5:16 "...The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man availeth much."
If there are no righteous man then what's the point of this writing?

- Psa 31:18 Let the lying lips be put to silence; which speak grievous things proudly and contemptuously against the righteous.
This is moot if there are no righteous men to speak against.

How is one righteous? - Notice below that none of the references state that being righteous is impossible to achieve. This is an insertion that has been part of vernacular for so long that we don't check it out to see if it's so.
Eze 18:9
He lives by my rules and obeys my laws faithfully. This person is righteous. He will certainly live," declares the Almighty LORD.

De.6:25
It will be righteousness for us if we are careful to obey all these mitzvot before Adonai our God, just as He ordered us to do.

Zacharias and Elizibth did this.
Luk 1:6
And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.

Also, that people like Zachariah and Elizabeth were blameless doesn't mean they never sinned. The law had provisions for the forgivness of sins and they no doubt used them, therefore they were righteous.

This is what I found as well. People attempt to switch out the word righteous with sinlessness.

Righteousness is an act of doing.
1Jo 3:7
Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous (dikaios).

To say that no one is righteous is to be contrary to the prophets and Jesus.

The Greek word "righteous" that Paul used is Strong's #1342, dikaios = observing divine laws, keeping the commands of God, approved of or acceptable of God

Jesus' words say something quite different pertaining to no one being "righteous." And as far what one's definition of righteousness is please look below:
• Many righteous - (dikaios) Matt 13:17
• Abel and Zechariah - (dikaios) Matt 23:35
Others
• Zacharias & Elisabath were righteous - (dikaios). Luke 1:5,6
• Cornelius was just - (dikaios) Acts 10:22

Search for yourself and follow the teachings of Jesus about righteousness and the Law. This study had help me see that not everything we've been taught can be backed up by the prophets or Jesus.

Thank you for your answers. If one does find definitive proof that no one is righteous, please post it.

[Dani H]

There is a righteousness that comes with the Law, for sure. God's law teaches us right from wrong, particularly the Ten Commandments. I don't think anybody here will disagree on that. There is also a righteousness that comes by faith, the trust in God's character through difficult circumstances and the hanging on to His promises in the face of "this isn't ever going to happen as far as I can see." That's what Abraham did, before there was a Law. God said "go" and Abraham did. God said "I'll give you this land" and Abraham offered sacrifices and covenanted with God. God said "you'll have a son and heir and a whole nation will come from you" when Abraham was old and childless, and Abraham trusted God. That is righteousness by faith. Even though he goofed with Ishmael, God brought His promises to pass and established His covenant with Abraham, and then with Israel.

However, Jesus brought another righteousness. The righteousness that comes directly from God Himself and is actually His character. The blameless, sinless aspect of it. Jesus never sinned. Compared to God, nobody is righteous. Jesus said, nobody was good except for God Himself. Now we're past the Law, and past faith, and into character and personhood. Jesus stepped past "what can people do?" to "look at what I'm about to do; I bring a new covenant that is on a totally new level and that is centered around my Person and the final revelation of who God is, as your Father, with me as your Savior and your Way to Him."

That is why Paul could say "there is nobody righteous" because compared to Jesus ... nobody is. Nobody does the right thing, thinks the right way, has the right motives, with 100% connectivity with God, 100% of the time. Nobody displays that kind of character and godliness. People barely do it after being born from above and regenerated by the Spirit, never mind anybody before they come to Jesus and surrender. If you do, good for you, but I've met no such person. And I'll have to go with Scripture here, because the Bible is true, all of the time.

Under the New Covenant, Jesus Himself is our Righteousness. And in Him, we are now the righteousness of God Himself. That is mindboggling and is what makes it a better Covenant.

Hope that helps.

[watchinginawe]

This will be my last reply on this topic, because I don't believe an objective answer can be reached on this specific topic. The view of Paul is what is highly esteemed, not the view of Jesus. Why? Because even the words of Jesus are dismissed.

TryTheSpirits, Paul's "view" is fully made by Jesus. Said another way, Jesus establishes Paul's doctrine, not Paul. As I offered before, Paul concluded that we all were under sin and that "for all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God". Consider:

Luke 18:18 And a certain ruler asked him, saying, Good Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?

19 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God.

Jesus rejects the honor of the title "Good Master" which is conferred by man. This ruler apparently was wanting Jesus to confer the same title back to him by doing a worthy deed. Jesus says the title "good" belongs to and is conferred by God alone. Did this ruler believe that Jesus could give him eternal life, as if that is something that one man can give to another? Jesus knew his heart and thus asks, why do you call me good? Or said another way, why do you approach me as someone that can answer your question? Regardless, this is what Paul teaches, we have all sinned, and have come short of the glory of God.


John 8:21 Then said Jesus again unto them, I go my way, and ye shall seek me, and shall die in your sins: whither I go, ye cannot come.

22 Then said the Jews, Will he kill himself? because he saith, Whither I go, ye cannot come.

23 And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world.

24 I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins.

We have two classes of people in the above (being as liberal as I can). Those who have heard of Jesus without believing who die in their sins and those who believe on Jesus who do not. Continuing:

30 As he spake these words, many believed on him.

31 Then said Jesus to those Jews which believed on him, If ye continue in my word, then are ye my disciples indeed;

32 And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free.

33 They answered him, We be Abraham's seed, and were never in bondage to any man: how sayest thou, Ye shall be made free?

34 Jesus answered them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whosoever committeth sin is the servant of sin.

35 And the servant abideth not in the house for ever: but the Son abideth ever.

36 If the Son therefore shall make you free, ye shall be free indeed.

Even some that at first believed on Jesus could not accept His teaching (were offended at His teaching) that He was necessary for them to be "free indeed". They trusted to Abraham as their standing before God. It kind of seems that you fall into something like this camp. Here is a simple summary that Jesus offers that concludes the matter IMO:

Matthew 9:10 And it came to pass, as Jesus sat at meat in the house, behold, many publicans and sinners came and sat down with him and his disciples.

11 And when the Pharisees saw it, they said unto his disciples, Why eateth your Master with publicans and sinners?

12 But when Jesus heard that, he said unto them, They that be whole need not a physician, but they that are sick.

13 But go ye and learn what that meaneth, I will have mercy, and not sacrifice: for I am not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.



If you are righteous then you don't need Jesus and the purpose for which He came. Go for it.

God Bless!

[watchinginawe]

This is what I found as well. People attempt to switch out the word righteous with sinlessness.

Righteousness is an act of doing.
1Jo 3:7
Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous (dikaios).

To say that no one is righteous is to be contrary to the prophets and Jesus.

The Greek word "righteous" that Paul used is Strong's #1342, dikaios = observing divine laws, keeping the commands of God, approved of or acceptable of God

Jesus' words say something quite different pertaining to no one being "righteous." And as far what one's definition of righteousness is please look below:
• Many righteous - (dikaios) Matt 13:17
• Abel and Zechariah - (dikaios) Matt 23:35
Others
• Zacharias & Elisabath were righteous - (dikaios). Luke 1:5,6
• Cornelius was just - (dikaios) Acts 10:22

Search for yourself and follow the teachings of Jesus about righteousness and the Law. This study had help me see that not everything we've been taught can be backed up by the prophets or Jesus.

Thank you for your answers. If one does find definitive proof that no one is righteous, please post it.

You do not consider what Paul teaches. Paul states the following:

Romans 3:9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;

10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:

Also, as to whether righteousness is by "acts of doing" only, check out the next chapter of Romans. There I suppose you will find Paul disputing with himself since he speaks of the righteousness of Abraham. But in the Chapter Paul speaks of something that happens before the "acts of doing" which made Abraham righteous.

I had originally wanted to find definitive proof of this concept that no one is righteous Here's what I have found to date:

You don't seem inept at grasping concepts, so I doubt you took that one verse and decided to embark on your study. See Paul's context above in 3:9 and later his conclusion in 3:23. I think the problem is you didn't grasp Paul's concept at all.

Search for yourself and follow the teachings of Jesus about righteousness and the Law. This study had help me see that not everything we've been taught can be backed up by the prophets or Jesus.

Try, are you a gnostic? Maybe we could all be more helpful if we understood more about your faith.

God Bless!

[BroRog]

Thank you for the kind responses.

The core of this is as follows:
1. Paul taught that no one is righteous.
2. The old and new testaments appear to teach the exact opposite.

Respectfully and without harsh intent, according to whom is it not demanded? According to the old and new testaments we are to be on the lookout for these things. Jesus said, "it is written man should not live by bread alone." You can find that this is written in the Hebrew scriptures.
De. 8:3
3 So He humbled you, allowed you to hunger, and fed you with manna which you did not know nor did your fathers know, that He might make you know that man shall not live by bread alone; but man lives by every word that proceeds from the mouth of the LORD.

The crux is not a verbatim recitation of the Hebrew scriptures, it is the concept that no one is righteous. I have yet to see any support of this statement within the Hebrew scriptures, prophets or Jesus.

Not according to the prophet Ezekiel - 18:9 "He follows my decrees and faithfully keeps my laws. That man is righteous; he will surely live, declares the Sovereign LORD."

Zechariah and Elizabeth were found righteous for observing the Law.
Luke 1:5-6
5 In the days of Herod, king of Judea, there was a priest named Zacharias, of the division of Abijah; and he had a wife from the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elizabeth.
6 They were both righteous in the sight of God, walking blamelessly in all the commandments and requirements of the Lord.

Thank you.

The term "righteous" as it is used in the Bible has at least three distinct meanings:

1. Morally good
2. Acceptable to God
3. Pure of heart

When Paul quotes the OT "that there is none righteous", he is quoting verbatim the Septuagint translation of the OT to make his point that all human beings, Jew and Gentile alike, are not "righteous", i.e. morally good enough to merit God's favor.

In the same Epistle of Romans, Paul cites Abraham, whom God declared to be "righteous" in view of his faith. Abraham's faith didn't render him righteous in the first sense, i.e. morally good, it rendered him "righteous" in the second sense, i.e. acceptable to God. God has accepted Abraham, not on a moral basis, but on the basis of Abraham's trusting disposition toward God. Abraham was willing to trust and believe what God said, and so God accepted him on that basis, rather than on a moral basis. Since Abraham is willing to believe and trust what God says, God has nothing against him -- that is, Abraham is right with God.

A major theme in Romans is the comparison between those who attempted to gain God's favor through "righteousness" in the first sense, i.e. acting in moral ways, and those who seek God's favor through righteousness in the second or third sense, i.e. an honest and good heart which leads to contrition. As Paul makes his case he cites the 32nd Psalm in which David points out the difference.

How blessed is he whose transgression is forgiven, Whose sin is covered! How blessed is the man to whom the Lord does not impute iniquity, And in whose spirit there is no deceit!

David finds a correspondence between the forgiveness of transgressions and the man in whose spirit there is no deceit. God is willing to forgive an honest man. There is something right and good about a man who is willing to confess his sins and to ask for mercy from God with a contrite heart.

Paul also cites a passage out of the book of Habakkuk in which God asks the prophet to warn the people by writing the warning on a tablet. God then compares two kinds of people who will respond to the writing,

I will stand on my guard post and station myself on the rampart; and I will keep watch to see what He will speak to me, and how I may reply when I am reproved. Then the Lord answered me and said, "Record the vision And inscribe it on tablets, that the one who reads it may run. For the vision is yet for the appointed time; It hastens toward the goal and it will not fail. Though it tarries, wait for it; For it will certainly come, it will not delay. Behold, as for the proud one, His soul is not right within him; But the righteous will live by his faith.

God refers to the one who believes the warning as "righteous", and he refers to the proud one, that his soul is not right within him. This is righteousness in the third sense, in which a man is declared to be "righteous" when he has the right kind of heart (or soul) that will believe what God says. There is something "right" about that one and something "not right" with the proud one.

For Paul's point in chapter 3, all he needs to prove is that there is none "righteous" in the first sense. That is, there is no person alive (except Jesus) who can merit God's favor through acts of moral goodness.

[pekoe]

Hi Try.

Actually, Paul did. Rom 3:10. I got a flyer in the mail from a Christian church stating the exact same concept. That "no one is righteous."

Oh, sorry. I meant righteous by the law. There are many righteous people apart from the law by faith in Jesus.

You have presented your opinion but not definitive proof. I believe Solomon (Ecc 7:20) is stating the opposite because he lines up with the rest of the Hebrew scriptures, plus Jesus taught the same idea that there are indeed righteous men (after Mosaic Law). It is also interesting to note that if this is truly Solomon saying that there are no righteous men, then why is this not used as a reference for Romans 3:10? Instead, seminaries teach; Psalm 14:1-3; 53:1-3, Psalm 5:9, Psalm 140:3, Psalm 10:7, Prov 1:16; Isaiah 59:7-8 and Psalm 36:1. All those verses are talking about the evil and adversaries of God, not all people.

I never went to school for the Bible so I don’t know what they teach.

This will be my last reply on this topic, because I don't believe an objective answer can be reached on this specific topic. The view of Paul is what is highly esteemed, not the view of Jesus. Why? Because even the words of Jesus are dismissed.

Example:
Jesus - "For verily I say unto you, That many prophets and righteous [men] have desired to see [those things] which ye see, and have not seen; and to hear which ye hear, and have not heard." He said that there are many righteous men here. If there were not righteous men, then Jesus in not being truthful. He'd be using pretense instead of truth to make his point. The righteous men Jesus is talking about are post Mosiac Law.

The Bible also says these righteous men had the Spirit of Christ. (1 Pe.1:11) Were they righteous because of the law, or because of Christ?

Post Mosaic Law - This brings up an interesting point, God's Law has always existed. Just because there are righteous men obeying God's Law before

Mount Sinai does not make them any less righteous.

As I’ve said, the Bible defines sin as the transgression of the law. Where there is no law, there is no sin.

Look at the Garden of Eden. There was one Law. The Adversary's #1 goal is to break that Law. He used distortions with concepts of lies to ultimately reach this goal. Look at Cain and Able. God's Law even back then was not to murder and Cain knew it. Cain also broke God's Law by his unworthy sacrifice which started his murderous rampage.

Wow! Only four people and three of them unrighteous by reason of not being able to obey a few rules. The only righteous one was the guy who brought the right sacrifice! Hmmm.

This is what I found as well. People attempt to switch out the word righteous with sinlessness.

Sinless is righteous.

Search for yourself and follow the teachings of Jesus about righteousness and the Law.

We believe the law is holy and good. We just don’t believe it saves us. Sin has to be judged.

If one does find definitive proof that no one is righteous, please post it.

“Don’t bring your servant to trial, since in Your sight no one alive would be considered righteousness.” Ps.143:2

[freeman4]

That is a good question. The answer could be in understanding a Scripture.

For instance, When Revelation Ch. 20: tells us that The Kingdom Of God will be set up on Earth and one says it is in Heaven is a miss understanding of scripture. To be honest, it would be the Kingdom from Heaven here on Earth.

One can not read just one scripture, they would have to reference that scripture to others to get the completer meaning.

[TryTheSpirits]

Thank you all for your time and responses. I will check these out. It is interesting how Christians interpret Paul differently and thus divide accordingly. I have heard many sermons standing on the ground that no one ever has been righteous using these teachings.

Thank you again and many blessings to you all.