Dual Fulfillments or Typology?

[Beckrl]

Lets start by examing how Matthew uses the expression "that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the Prophet" Matthew gives a number of accounts that he uses this term. Now some would have it simply that the prophecy had be fulfilled and in the case of Matthew 1:21-23 concerning the virgin birth of a son as a dual fulfillment, but is that what Matthew intended by his usage of fulfill.

First lets look at another verse that Matthew uses by describing the flight into Egypt and compare it to Dual Prophecy and it's fulfillment. This is first recorded in Hosea 11:1.
1When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt.



Matthew 2:13-15
"13And when they were departed, behold, the angel of the Lord appeareth to Joseph in a dream, saying, Arise, and take the young child and his mother, and flee into Egypt, and be thou there until I bring thee word: for Herod will seek the young child to destroy him.

14When he arose, he took the young child and his mother by night, and departed into Egypt: 15And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt Have I Called My Son"


In this passage Hosea states that Israel as a son was called out of Egypt. Before the words “and out of Egypt I called my son” (Hos 11:1b) are the words, “When Israel was a youth I loved him” (11:1a). Then 11:2a reads, “They called to them, thus they went from before them” or “Just as I called them, so they departed from my presence.” This seems to be a reference to the nation of Israel being brought out of Egypt and sustained in the wilderness only to rebel against God, who had redeemed them. Matthew neither introduces this quotation because he is unable to find a better “proof-text” nor because he has failed to understand what Hosea was saying. Rather, Matthew cites these words because just as the nation, the collective son of God, was led out of Egypt by the pillar of fire and cloud to failure in the desert, so Jesus, the singular son of God was summoned out of Egypt and then led out to the desert by the Spirit to succeed against temptation (Matt 4:1–11).



Likewise is the typology seen in Matthew of Jesus. So these are only 'types and antitypes' which Matthew express as being the 'typological fulfillment' and should be understood as such and not perdictive prophecy fulfillment as in what some call dual fulfillments.

[Matthehitmanhart]

Well put. I agree completely.

[The Beginner]

Many on this board have declared that if a prophecy has a fulfillment, there can be no further fulfillment. To this I say "yes", but only if all the requirements of the first fulfillment are met and the scripture gives no further room for a secondary fulfillment. One of the objections to believing a “near/far” view of prophecy is that there are no governors on when the prophecy could end. If there is a second far fulfillment, then why cant there be a far/far third fulfillment or a fourth or fifth. It could be a never-ending cycle of fulfillments and thus lose all credibility to a prophecy’s fulfillment. This however is not what those that hold a “near/far” lens believe. A prophecy is totally fulfilled when all the criteria of the text in the scriptures regarding the prophecy are satisfied. If there be a type, or foreshadow that does not complete unfulfilled portions of the scriptures regarding that prophecy, then that would be a considered a type or foreshadow. If however, a future so called "type" or "shadow" fulfills information not fulfilled in the original context, then that is no longer a type or foreshadow but is another layer to the fulfillment.

In order for a “near/far” prophecy to be true does not require that the events happen exactly the same in both scenarios. This is often what people think the term “dual fulfillment” means (Understandably, because the terminology is not the best). Rather it only requires that the first context to satisfy some of the prophecy but not fully satisfy all the requirements of the scriptures regarding that prophecy and thus have a fully satisfied fulfillment beyond it s original scope.

So lets look at a few examples of prophecies that have multilayered fulfillments

1. Abomination of Desolation: Daniel prophesied this even in Daniel 11:31 and most would attribute this prophecy as being historical under Antiochus Epiphanes in 168BC. Thus the prophecy of the AOD was fulfilled. However, nearly 200 year later, Jesus on the Mount of Olives when giving direction to his disciples declared that one of the major signs of the coming Great Tribulation would be “the Abomination of Desolation spoken of by the Prophet Daniel”. This cannot be relegated to just being typology because Jesus identified that this which was prophesied by Daniel would be done in a future day beyond the Olivet discourse and would be a sign for believers to flee Judea. So regardless of whether one believes this to be fulfilled in Christ death, Rome, or a future Antichrist or any other version it requires a multi layered fulfillment. One could say that it “fills up” this prophecy but it still requires that there be an event future from Jesus’ Olivet discourse that justifies the title given by Jesus as “the abomination of Desolation” which Daniel spoke of. It cannot just be a "like kind" of the one Daniel saw, because Jesus says it is the “AOD spoken of by the Prophet Daniel”. Thus some but not all scriptures regarding the prophecy of the AOD were satisfied in the original context of Antiochus Epiphanes, thus mandating a completion to beyond his day.

2. Isaiah 7-9 : Much has already been discussed regarding Isaiah’s prophecy of the “virgin” and the “Son/son” named Immanuel . It seems pretty obvious that those on this board that believe there is not a “near/far” fulfillment are split down the middle on what the fulfillment of this verse was. Several gave adequate examples and reasons why this prophecy was only fulfilled in Isaiah’s day concluding that this is the only way that this would have been a understandable sign to Ahaz and the House of David. Others with the same energy and passion refuted this saying that that this prophecy is only fulfilled in Christ alone, disregarding a historical fulfillment, concluding that only Christ could have complete the entire criteria listed in Isaiah 7-9.
Now I realize that it is not expected that those that do not believe in “near/far” prophecy to all agree on the details of when a prophecy is fulfilled just like it is not expect that all from a premill camp to buy into the same end time scenario. The challenge is this… both view points cannot coexist for there to be only one fulfillment, meaning either everyone is partially right or partially wrong or possibly everyone is wrong.
If those that believe that the prophecy of Isaiah 7-9 is only fulfilled in Christ, it would be objected by the other group saying that it fails to give any logical understanding into the events of Isaiah, Ahaz and the sign that it would be of a coming invasion of Assyria and the removal of the kings of Israel and Syria. However, those that believe it was only fulfilled in Isaiah’s day cannot account for the details of any young boy whether is be Isaiah’s son or any other son justifying being given the name “Immanuel”. Nor can they tell of any “son” in Isaiah’s day that fulfilled having the “government on His shoulder”, being called “Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace”. No “son” in Isaiah’s day had a "government of peace that lasted forever that was established on judgment and justice".
So IMO the only way to satisfy the totality of the criteria of the entire prophecy is to see a multilayered fulfillment because neither scenario individually captures that entirety of the context of the prophecy but both together do in a near/far vantage point.

3. Moses Predictions of Judgment: Moses prophesied in Deut 31 that after his death that the children of Israel would go into rebellion and because of this would suffer the consequence of their disobedience. Deuteronomy 28 details the blessings and curses that would follow the nation of Israel depending upon their choice obedience or disobedience. These included, famine, destruction of their land that God had given them, a siege by a foreign army and dispersion. Sadly those entire things spoken of in the curses of Deut 28 that came to pass. However, this has not happen just once but rather several times. Moses’ words can be seen as fulfilled several times throughout Israel’s history and repeated not as a “type” but in an actual fulfillment of his words on several occasions. Those things spoken of in Deut 31 and Deut 28 can be seen in Assyria, Babylon and Rome with each fulfillment satisfying the text.

4. Geneses 3:15:, which was one of the first prophecies in the bible. God looks at the serpent after he had tempted Eve in the garden which subsequently resulted in the fall of man into sin. In God’s address to the Serpent, He prophesies “Gen 3:15 And I will put enmity between you and the woman, And between your seed and her Seed; He shall bruise your head, And you shall bruise His heel."
Most of us regardless of eschatological beliefs would recognize the Serpent to be Satan and the Seed of the woman to be Christ. Now, as many preterist would agree that the fulfillment of this took place on the cross and the resurrection of Christ. However, if this were the only fulfillment, then it would mean that God’s first and initial prophecy of judgment would exclude the future fulfillment of Rev 20 of Satan’s final judgment. I agree that this verse has in view the cross at Calvary, but it cannot be divorced from final fulfillment that the cross-made a way for, specifically the destruction of works of the devil and the removal of the curse, sin and death and the eventual casting of Satan into eternal destruction.

This is one of the reasons why Paul could say after Calvary that there will be a final crushing of Satan “Rom 16:20 NKJV - [20] And the God of peace will crush Satan under your feet shortly…” (Rom 16:20). Notice that it is God who is doing the crushing which would make it a second crushing.

IMO the correct way to see this verse is a two-stage fulfillment that began at Calvary and finishes at the Lake of Fire.

5. Davidic Covenant: Looking at the covenant that God made to David in 2 Sam 7. David is given a promise from God about the establishment of his his kingdom through his son

2Sa 7:12-16 NKJV - [12] "When your days are fulfilled and you rest with your fathers, I will set up your seed after you, who will come from your body, and I will establish his kingdom. [13] "He shall build a house for My name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever. [14] "I will be his Father, and he shall be My son. If he commits iniquity, I will chasten him with the rod of men and with the blows of the sons of men. [15] "But My mercy shall not depart from him, as I took it from Saul, whom I removed from before you. [16] "And your house and your kingdom shall be established forever before you. Your throne shall be established forever."'"

Now 1 Chron 22:9-10 makes no mistake in saying that this passage (also found in 1 Chron 17:9-14) would be fulfilled by his son, Solomon.

1Ch 22:9-10 NKJV - [9] 'Behold, a son shall be born to you, who shall be a man of rest; and I will give him rest from all his enemies all around. His name shall be Solomon, for I will give peace and quietness to Israel in his days. [10] 'He shall build a house for My name, and he shall be My son, and I will be his Father; and I will establish the throne of his kingdom over Israel forever.'

Thus this passage was fulfilled in Solomon, yet the bible also clearly teaches that this prophecy would be ultimately fulfilled through the Messiah.

Jer 33:15-17 NKJV - [15] 'In those days and at that time I will cause to grow up to David A Branch of righteousness; He shall execute judgment and righteousness in the earth. [16] In those days Judah will be saved, And Jerusalem will dwell safely. And this is the name by which she will be called: THE LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS.' [17] "For thus says the LORD: 'David shall never lack a man to sit on the throne of the house of Israel;

Thus there was an immediate fulfillment through Solomon, but an ultimate fulfillment through Jesus.

6. Blessed is He who comes in the Name of the Lord: Now Psalms 118 states “Psa 118:22-26 NKJV - [22] The stone which the builders rejected Has become the chief cornerstone. [23] This was the LORD's doing; It is marvelous in our eyes. [24] This is the day the LORD has made; We will rejoice and be glad in it. [25] Save now, I pray, O LORD; O LORD, I pray, send now prosperity. [26] Blessed is he who comes in the name of the LORD! We have blessed you from the house of the LORD.

Jesus declared himself to be the “stone which the builders rejected that became the chief cornerstone”. Then the psalmist prays that when salvation comes, they will cry, “Blessed is he who comes in the name of the Lord”.
We see this initially fulfilled on Jesus triumphal entry into Jerusalem:

Mat 21:7-9 NKJV - [7] They brought the donkey and the colt, laid their clothes on them, and set Him on them. [8] And a very great multitude spread their clothes on the road; others cut down branches from the trees and spread them on the road. [9] Then the multitudes who went before and those who followed cried out, saying: "Hosanna to the Son of David! 'Blessed is He who comes in the name of the LORD!' Hosanna in the highest!"

However, several days later when Jesus was speaking to the nation of Israel we see him rebuking them and then declares in relation to his second coming - [39] "for I say to you, you shall see Me no more till you say, 'Blessed is He who comes in the name of the LORD!'" Mat 23:39 NKJV Indicating that there would be yet again another fulfillment to this verse that is future from the day of his triumphal entry.

Blessings

[Beckrl]

. If there be a type, or foreshadow that does not complete unfulfilled portions of the scriptures regarding that prophecy, then that would be a considered a type or foreshadow. If however, a future so called "type" or "shadow" fulfills information not fulfilled in the original context, then that is no longer a type or foreshadow but is another layer to the fulfillment.

I don't see this as layers of unfuflilled or fulfilled prophecy, an 'type' isn't the fulfillment, but rather only a sign or shadow of how the prophecy is to be fulfilled. What we see is that throughtout the old testament are these 'types' and shadows' and in the new testament is it's fulfillments. Now that isn't saying that some prophecy concerning that time was not fulfilled and would not until the new testament times, but rather that many of those prophecies were fulfilled and shown as a 'type' and 'shadow' of what was to come themselves.

In order for a “near/far” prophecy to be true does not require that the events happen exactly the same in both scenarios. This is often what people think the term “dual fulfillment” means (Understandably, because the terminology is not the best). Rather it only requires that the first context to satisfy some of the prophecy but not fully satisfy all the requirements of the scriptures regarding that prophecy and thus have a fully satisfied fulfillment beyond it s original scope.

Yet, this is the reason for my posting this thread to show that what many believe to be a partial fulfillment in the old testament would rather be an 'type' of that was to come as the fulfillment. For an type or shadow doen't need to complete or fulfll all aspects of the prophecy for it's only a shadow. An Image of what is to come, so that the people will have a idea of what it will be when it comes and is fulfilled.

So lets look at a few examples of prophecies that have multilayered fulfillments

1. Abomination of Desolation: Daniel prophesied this even in Daniel 11:31 and most would attribute this prophecy as being historical under Antiochus Epiphanes in 168BC. Thus the prophecy of the AOD was fulfilled.

While Anitochus did take away the daily it makes no mention of an 'abomination of desolation' by him in chapter 8 & 9. Unless one gives that Daniel 11:31 applies to Anitochus, So to me while he is the fulfillment of these prophecies concerning the evening and morning as the 'little horn' I rather see these fulfillments as an 'type' of what is to come and not as partial, dual, layers and so forth, but of any prophetic type.

Then apply what is prophesied about the AOD and Daniel chapters 9:27,& 12:11 as to what Jesus prophesied concerning the temple and it's daily been taken away which see's it's fulfillment in 70AD by Titus. They where to understand the type and shadow that Anitochus have given them.

However, nearly 200 year later, Jesus on the Mount of Olives when giving direction to his disciples declared that one of the major signs of the coming Great Tribulation would be “the Abomination of Desolation spoken of by the Prophet Daniel”. This cannot be relegated to just being typology because Jesus identified that this which was prophesied by Daniel would be done in a future day beyond the Olivet discourse and would be a sign for believers to flee Judea. So regardless of whether one believes this to be fulfilled in Christ death, Rome, or a future Antichrist or any other version it requires a multi layered fulfillment. One could say that it “fills up” this prophecy but it still requires that there be an event future from Jesus’ Olivet discourse that justifies the title given by Jesus as “the abomination of Desolation” which Daniel spoke of. It cannot just be a "like kind" of the one Daniel saw, because Jesus says it is the “AOD spoken of by the Prophet Daniel”. Thus some but not all scriptures regarding the prophecy of the AOD were satisfied in the original context of Antiochus Epiphanes, thus mandating a completion to beyond his day.

If one considers that Daniel 11:31 isn't referring to Antiochus, but of the coming Roman armies then the AOD wouldn't apply and the prophecy concerning Anitochus was complete and fulfilled as a 'type' and shadow of what was to come. Even if one applies an AOD to Anitochus it would still be only an prophetic type and not dual fulfillment.

2. Isaiah 7-9 : Much has already been discussed regarding Isaiah’s prophecy of the “virgin” and the “Son/son” named Immanuel . It seems pretty obvious that those on this board that believe there is not a “near/far” fulfillment are split down the middle on what the fulfillment of this verse was. Several gave adequate examples and reasons why this prophecy was only fulfilled in Isaiah’s day concluding that this is the only way that this would have been a understandable sign to Ahaz and the House of David. Others with the same energy and passion refuted this saying that that this prophecy is only fulfilled in Christ alone, disregarding a historical fulfillment, concluding that only Christ could have complete the entire criteria listed in Isaiah 7-9.
Now I realize that it is not expected that those that do not believe in “near/far” prophecy to all agree on the details of when a prophecy is fulfilled just like it is not expect that all from a premill camp to buy into the same end time scenario. The challenge is this… both view points cannot coexist for there to be only one fulfillment, meaning either everyone is partially right or partially wrong or possibly everyone is wrong.
If those that believe that the prophecy of Isaiah 7-9 is only fulfilled in Christ, it would be objected by the other group saying that it fails to give any logical understanding into the events of Isaiah, Ahaz and the sign that it would be of a coming invasion of Assyria and the removal of the kings of Israel and Syria. However, those that believe it was only fulfilled in Isaiah’s day cannot account for the details of any young boy whether is be Isaiah’s son or any other son justifying being given the name “Immanuel”. Nor can they tell of any “son” in Isaiah’s day that fulfilled having the “government on His shoulder”, being called “Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace”. No “son” in Isaiah’s day had a "government of peace that lasted forever that was established on judgment and justice".
So IMO the only way to satisfy the totality of the criteria of the entire prophecy is to see a multilayered fulfillment because neither scenario individually captures that entirety of the context of the prophecy but both together do in a near/far vantage point.

I would hope I've made my point in the openning post concerning this, it's all relative to Matthew's typology.

[RogerW]

Lets start by examing how Matthew uses the expression "that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the Prophet" Matthew gives a number of accounts that he uses this term. Now some would have it simply that the prophecy had be fulfilled and in the case of Matthew 1:21-23 concerning the virgin birth of a son as a dual fulfillment, but is that what Matthew intended by his usage of fulfill.

First lets look at another verse that Matthew uses by describing the flight into Egypt and compare it to Dual Prophecy and it's fulfillment. This is first recorded in Hosea 11:1.
1When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt.

Matthew 2:13-15
"13And when they were departed, behold, the angel of the Lord appeareth to Joseph in a dream, saying, Arise, and take the young child and his mother, and flee into Egypt, and be thou there until I bring thee word: for Herod will seek the young child to destroy him.

14When he arose, he took the young child and his mother by night, and departed into Egypt: 15And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt Have I Called My Son"

In this passage Hosea states that Israel as a son was called out of Egypt. Before the words “and out of Egypt I called my son” (Hos 11:1b) are the words, “When Israel was a youth I loved him” (11:1a). Then 11:2a reads, “They called to them, thus they went from before them” or “Just as I called them, so they departed from my presence.” This seems to be a reference to the nation of Israel being brought out of Egypt and sustained in the wilderness only to rebel against God, who had redeemed them. Matthew neither introduces this quotation because he is unable to find a better “proof-text” nor because he has failed to understand what Hosea was saying. Rather, Matthew cites these words because just as the nation, the collective son of God, was led out of Egypt by the pillar of fire and cloud to failure in the desert, so Jesus, the singular son of God was summoned out of Egypt and then led out to the desert by the Spirit to succeed against temptation (Matt 4:1–11).

Likewise is the typology seen in Matthew of Jesus. So these are only 'types and antitypes' which Matthew express as being the 'typological fulfillment' and should be understood as such and not perdictive prophecy fulfillment as in what some call dual fulfillments.

Unless the prophecy is Messianic, then it would not be a type of fulfillment, but true fulfillment in Christ. If Hosea is referring to the nation, rather than Christ it would read "When Israel was a child, then I loved THEM, and called my SONS out of Egypt"....but Hosea speaks of a single child, beloved by God, His Son called out of Egypt.

We know that God, through Moses freed the nation from bondage in Egypt, but is that really what Hosea is referring to?

Ho*12:9 And I that am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt will yet make thee to dwell in tabernacles, as in the days of the solemn feast.

Ho*13:4 Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: for there is no saviour beside me.

Ex*4:22 And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith the LORD, Israel is my son, even my firstborn:

Mt*2:15 And was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son.

Not sons, as in many or the nation, but MY SON, being in the loins of Jacob via promise of immaculate conception through the Spirit, born of a virgin. IOW Christ was born a Jew, through the nation, Israel My SON, My Firstborn called out of Egypt just as the prophet has written.

In Hosea 11:2 the prophet speaks no longer of a single Son, but "them" as His "backsliding people." Though they (Ephraim/Israel) are a rebellious people God will not utterly destroy or give them all up, for He still has some faithful saints among them.

[Beckrl]

Roger, what I'm saying is that the fulfillment by Christ is that of 'typological fulfillment' and should be understood as such and not perdictive prophecy fulfillment as in what some call dual fulfillments. Hosea was given an retrospect of how Israel (collective son)came out of Egypt. Hosea called Israel a child, son, them, they, and my people. An type and shadow of how Jesus would of out of Egypt. The Fulfillment of the typology.