Gn 1:26 . And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.
It's pretty clear hear that this counsel was between the Trinity. We are not created after the similitude of angels.
Here we see one Jehovah raining down fire from another Jehovah which was in heaven
Gn 19:24 . Then the LORD rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD out of heaven;
You are reading a definition into "bosom" that isn't there. It simply means he was at the side of the Father and was dwelling in his love. It doesn't mean he was trapped like a pre-born fetus inside the Father.Yes, we can use the word one in different contexts to mean different things. But God was always clear that He is the one and only God. The Word was in the bosom of the Father. The Word was brought forth and took on the divine form
We have many instances of Jesus praying to the Father and the Father answering. So,no,I don't think it's possible.(Phil. 2:6) and thousands of years later, took on the human form (Phil. 2:7). Is it possible that the one Infinite God manifested Himself in the preincarnate Word (the image of the invisible God, Col. 1:15) and became man?
This really doesn't make any sense to me but I have heard similar explanations attempted from the "Jesus only" camp.This would mean that Jesus by identity is God—Jesus is the Person of God. But Jesus is also very much a man with a human nature and a human consciousness. Jesus is distinct from the Father because Jesus is the Infinite God existing as man with a human consciousness in order to experience all the things a man experiences—in order to redeem man. At the same time, the Father continues to exist as the Infinite God. God existing beyond the incarnation and God existing after the incarnation.
The baptism of Jesus was a good place to show the Trinity and it's three distinct personages. Jesus was being baptized,the Holy Spirit descended in the form of a dove and the Father spoke "This is my beloved Son..."As far as I know, there is nothing in Scripture that would deny what I’ve suggested above. Do you know of anything? The Trinity (3 persons in 1) can be supported in the NT to an extent (i.e. there are distinctions between Father and Son and they're both God), but what that doesn’t harmonize with is the teaching that God is one God, one Person. But this omnipresent Person certainly could manifest in many ways all at the same time.
Are you saying they were all three the same person? When Jesus prays to the Father he is really talking to himself? Sounds "Jesus only" to me.
Maybe we shouldn’t use the word “begotten" for the preincarnate Word, but what does it mean that the Word was “with” God?
To me, that denotes distinction. What is the difference between “being in the bosom” and “being with” God? Whether you call it begotten or not, at some point, the Infinite God distinguished the Word that was previously in the bosom of the Father[/quote].
Not only "with" God but also WAS God. It portrays the distinct and separate personages of the Godhead,just as I have been contemplating. The word was always with God and the word has always been God...that's what the grammar implies.
Do you believe Jesus had a beginning or does he have eternal preexistence?
Please quote the scripture that states that God does not have a form. Even "Spirit" is a form of some type. In fact,there is no difference from having a divine form and "being divine". They mean the same thing.What is the divine form that Jesus emptied himself of (Phil. 2:6-7, cf. John 17:5)? Why was Jesus existing in a divine form at all? The Infinite God does not exist “in” a divine form; He is divine.