Rom 15:12 And again, Isaiah says: "THERE SHALL BE A ROOT OF JESSE; AND HE WHO SHALL RISE TO REIGN OVER THE GENTILES, IN HIM THE GENTILES SHALL HOPE."
- This verse was spoken of by Isaiah and the fulfillment of it was clearly a future reality to Isaiah... not present.
2Ti 2:11-12 This is a faithful saying: For if we died with Him, We shall also live with Him. (12) If we endure, We shall also reign with Him. If we deny Him, He also will deny us.
- Paul said "If we endure with Him we shall reign with Him" This is not talking about present conditions. It does not say "As we endure with Him we are also reigning with Him". There is a required time of endurance to be rewarded with reigning. Thus the context is future from the time of "enduring"..
Rev 11:15-18 Then the seventh angel sounded: And there were loud voices in heaven, saying, "The kingdoms of this world have become the kingdoms of our Lord and of His Christ, and He shall reign forever and ever!" (16) And the twenty-four elders who sat before God on their thrones fell on their faces and worshiped God, (17) saying: "We give You thanks, O Lord God Almighty, The One who is and who was and who is to come, Because You have taken Your great power and reigned. (18) The nations were angry, and Your wrath has come, And the time of the dead, that they should be judged, And that You should reward Your servants the prophets and the saints, And those who fear Your name, small and great, And should destroy those who destroy the earth."
Notice that "He shall reign forever and ever" is at the time of the rewarding of the saints and bringing judgment on the earth. Which is future...
Rev 20:6 Blessed and holy is he who has part in the first resurrection. Over such the second death has no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with Him a thousand years.
Why would John say here "they shall be priest" if he already had language to say "made us kings and priest" if both meant a "present condition"?
Rev 22:3-6 And there shall be no more curse, but the throne of God and of the Lamb shall be in it, and His servants shall serve Him. (4) They shall see His face, and His name shall be on their foreheads. (5) There shall be no night there: They need no lamp nor light of the sun, for the Lord God gives them light. And they shall reign forever and ever. (6) Then he said to me, "These words are faithful and true." And the Lord God of the holy prophets sent His angel to show His servants the things which must shortly take place.
Is this also in the past? No, this is clearly future context. "They shall reign" is used in a future context every time in scripture. Why would Rev 5 be the only exception?
This is the same idea that is laid out in revelation 2:26-27
Rev 2:25-27 But hold fast what you have till I come. (26) And he who overcomes, and keeps My works until the end, to him I will give power over the nations— (27) 'HE SHALL RULE THEM WITH A ROD OF IRON; THEY SHALL BE DASHED TO PIECES LIKE THE POTTER'S VESSELS'— as I also have received from My Father;
Notice the timing: Hold fast till I come (2nd Coming). Keeps my works until the end (either death or 2nd coming)
Notice the location: I will give power of the nations (nations are on earth, unless you believe saints will rule over other glorified bodied people in heaven)
Notice the nature of the ruling: Rule them with a rod of iron... "as I also recieved from My Father". Even as a Amill I would assume you believe the context of Jesus crushing the nations is 2nd coming (i.e. "till I come").
If saints are recieving a rulership "like Jesus received from His Father", are we to assume that Jesus' is only speaking of His "spiritual" ruling with a rod of Iron and only His "spiritually" crushing of the nations? Is there nothing in this passage that is "physical and on earth" in view here?