Re: What does it mean to say that Revelation is symbolic?

Originally Posted by
Matthehitmanhart
I figured this was coming.

It's a good question, and I'm not really settled on the answer. Although I've seen some interesting possibilities in George Caird's commentary, Gordon Fee's commentary, and in J. Nelson Kraybill's brilliant study
Apocalypse and Allegiance: Worship, Politics, and Devotion in the book of Revelation.
I'll have to check those out.

Originally Posted by
Matthehitmanhart
But I would also emphasize, like I did in the recent thread on Jeremiah 50-51, that it's always best to keep the interpretation of the text separate from the questions of fulfillment which may or may not arise afterwards.
We are in complete agreement.

Originally Posted by
Matthehitmanhart
That's obviously a difficult thing to do, since it may sometimes mean that we have to leave the question of fulfillment unanswered, but nonetheless I think it's important in order to maintain exegetical integrity. If our primary aim is to handle the text of Revelation with exegetical integrity, as indeed it should be, then we simply cannot ignore the specific indicators of historical context and authorial intent, all of which point to the primary referent being a near-impending conflict between the church and Rome.
Right. As an example of historical context and authorial intent being in conflict, I've been looking into how the fourth gospel differs drastically in its depiction of Jesus' arrest, even contradicting the Synoptic gospels' account of what all occurred then. The three synoptics have Jesus praying in distress, needing imparted strength from ministering angels, at the point of dying, asking for a way out, with His friends asleep and at a distance, being captured, and his disciples all fleeing from Him "in accordance with the Scriptures", while the fourth quite oppositely has Jesus praying as a high priest, imparting power to His friends, who all stand with Him, when He is sought for His captors draw back and fall to the ground, even Judas unable to come near let alone kiss Him, and when He goes with the guards none of His disciples flee, but follow after Him "in accordance with the Scriptures".
There are other instances of this type of depute between the gospels, but I find this one to be particularly interesting as one group says that the Scriptures foretold that when the shepherd is stuck down, the sheep would scatter, while the other says that the prophet foretold that the Messiah would not lose even one whom the Father had given Him. Both groups remember the event in very different and contradicting ways, and yet both cite the word of God in support of how their version of the story came to be fulfilled.
It's not all that problematic for me, then, to read Revelation or Jer. 50-51 as the Lord's word against Rome or Babylon (respectively), and yet for the history books to have gone quite another direction altogether. The Synoptic writers' depiction of Jesus' arrest and the author of the fourth gospel's depiction of the same event cannot both be true, but clearly the fourth book's author intended Jesus to have been, one might say, already ascended to God's right hand (cf. John 3:13), as if Jesus as He is now was re-cast to play the part of Jesus as He truly was at the time those events occurred. This would naturally demand that this author tell the story of His arrest in quite another light, if you take my meaning.

Originally Posted by
Matthehitmanhart
Also, I would say that it's a much more honest display of faith in the authority of Scripture to first take the text at its own terms, and then to say "I don't know" in reply to the question of fulfillment, than to try to save face by suggesting the text actually refers to something else, something easier to get our hands around. That's not true faith; it's doubt in disguise.
Good word.
analyze. synthesize. repeat.
*It is the next chapter of my life, whether I'm ready or not. My time here in these forums has come to its close. I bless you as I go!*
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