I challenged both preterists and futurists to re-examine their view in this thread:
I see that it was mainly preterists who responded in that thread, and so I started this thread for futurists to respond to.
All verses that refer to a future period of persecution or tribulation refer to a short period or 3.5 years and NOT 7 years. The only place in the bible that refers to this 7 year period is Daniel 9:27: And he shall make a firm covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease; and upon the wing of abominations `shall come' one that maketh desolate; and even unto the full end, and that determined, shall `wrath' be poured out upon the desolate.
When reading this verse for the first time many years ago I was immediately struck by the similarity of the highlighted events with Jesus' own life. God made a covenant with the Jews that He would send them a Messiah to set them free. In the autumn of 26AD Jesus was anointed, this is the coming of the anointed one as per Daniel 9:25. Jesus then confirmed to Israel that he was the Messiah. 3.5 years later Jesus was crucified as the last acceptable sacrifice of the age. Jesus therefore put an end to sacrifice 3.5 years after confirming the greatest ever covenant, God's promise to send a Messiah.
Surely Jesus' 3.5 years of ministry would deserve some mention in Daniel's 490 year period for the Jews? Why would some antichrist's covenant deserve more mention than Jesus Himself confirming the greatest ever covenant of God's promise to send a Messiah to save the Jews and bring peace to mankind? And why would only the coming of the anointed one and not the greatest event ever , the CRUCIFIXION of the anointed one deserve any attention in the 490 year period? I therefore believe the 7 year trib view is incorrect because it ignores the strength of Jesus' fulfilment of Daniel 9:27 and thereby leaves the ministry of Jesus as unmentioned in the 490 year period of the Jews. It also places the crucifixion outside of the 490 year period in favour of a future approach to the verse.
Additionally why is there no mention of any warnings about a 7 year period and an antichrist's so-called covenant in the gospels or anywhere else in the NT? I believe its because the future tribulation is only 3.5 years long and starts with an abomination which is an evil display in Jerusalem. Any comments welcome.