Re: If I've been babtized by the Holy Spirit, why cant I speak in tongues?

Originally Posted by
Watchman
Why do you suppose Paul differentiated between the tongues of men and the tongues of angels in 1 Corinthians 13?

Originally Posted by
jesse
If I speak in the tongues of men and of angels, but have not love, I am only a resounding gong or a clanging cymbal. 1 Corinthians 13:1
Very popular misinterpretation. The "tongues ... of angels" is an extreme. Similar to a "clanging cymbal" He is speaking in extremes. If i drive my car so fast it lifts from the ground and takes flight.... is also an extreme. The point of the passage is the value of love. It is more important than any other gift.
All other references to speaking in tongues means only in another human language like an English man speaking french or something of that nature.
Weather it is demons or the power of their own mind that causes them to "speak in the tongues of angels" i don't know.
Why does no one start a church of the unclanging cymbal? Why do people automatically recognize the one extreme but not the other?

Originally Posted by
ewq1938
Because they are different.
I realize the contrast Paul is drawing, but that doesn't relegate tongues of angels to insignificance or to equality with human languages. It relegates them to the category of an unknown tongue, does it not? I am not advocating for gibberish, just for open mindedness. Who can know what the tongues of angels sound like? I believe they can sound like any human language, if needed, or unlike anything we've heard, else Paul wouldn't have drawn the distinction. Sure, the point of 1 Corinthians 13 is the maturity worked out by love, but there is still other information that can be gleaned. I don't take it as an extreme and don't understand why it would be view as such...it is simply a statement. Would you clarify, please, Jesse?
Thanks,
W
Sunset remembers Eden...sunrise prophesies its return.
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