Why didn't Jesus call it "the kingdom of the Son" then? I think the reason He calls it "the kingdom of their Father" is because the following will have happened at that point:
1 Cor 15:24
Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
Whether you agree with me on this or not, can you at least see the point I'm making?
Because I find it difficult to believe things that I don't see taught in scripture anywhere. Imagine that.
It has nothing to do with having difficulty believing one thing or another. I believe lots of things that are difficult for some people to believe. Including that God created the heavens and the earth and that Jesus rose from the dead. You may have noticed there's a lot of people who have difficulty believing those things. So, again, it has nothing to do with having difficulty in believing God would have a heavenly kingdom and an earthly kingdom, it has to do with what I see taught (or not taught) in scripture, which is that there is just one kingdom that encompasses heaven and earth. During the time period between Christ's resurrection and His return the Father has put Christ in charge of the kingdom. At His return He will deliver the kingdom to the Father (1 Cor 15:23-24).
I didn't say otherwise, so why did you feel the need to say that?
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