The Greek word for sword is the same for knife or any other blade. The same goes for the Hebrew. A "blade" is a biblical "blade". To think it means only to kill men with is to judge privately what the word is saying. The word reveals more about us and what we want it to say then the original intent of the message.
It is not in keeping with the teachings of Jesus to interpret His "It is enough" as a license to kill. Jesus rebuked Peter for lifting his "sword" in order to defend Jesus.
I checked the E-sword program, and I read Luke 22:36 in the 1550 Greek text by Stephens, the Greek text that is the closest printed Greek text to the Greek text from which the New Testament in the King James Version was translated, and the last word in Luke 22:36 in that text is μάχαιραν, a word that, when used literally, always means ‘sword’ (usually a short one) or a ‘dagger.’ I compared this Greek text found in the E-sword program with a hardcopy of the same text and they read the same as each other. Please be more careful when posting information!
1) a large knife, used for killing animals and cutting up flesh
2) a small sword, as distinguished from a large sword
2a) curved sword, for a cutting stroke
2b) a straight sword, for thrusting
Part of Speech: noun feminine
A Related Word by Thayer’s/Strong’s Number: from a presumed derivative of G3163
Citing in TDNT: 4:524, 572
At least five different Hebrew words are used in the Old Testament for bladed instruments such as knives and swords.
Unless our e-swords are different we have a discrepency here
Here is what the online version says...
Luk 22:36 ThenG3767 saidG2036 he unto them,G846 ButG235 now,G3568 he that hathG2192 a purse,G905 let him takeG142 it, andG2532 likewiseG3668 his(G2532) scrip:G4082 andG2532 he that hathG2192 noG3361 sword, let him sellG4453 hisG848 garment,G2440 andG2532 buyG59 one.(G3162) Notice bracketed item has been added by translators
The last entry is in brackets because it is assumed to be there to try to make sense of the text by the translators. It is not in the original Greek. Please be more careful when trying to correct a correction.
In Greek meaning is established by context. Jesus didn't send them on a fishing expedition. He sent them on paths where criminals prey on travellers.
But the disciples were to become hunted men...so they would have to fend for themselves...peacefully. Jesus said they should have money and a food bag since they were to become criminalized by association with Jesus. They could no longer expect to be well received by the people for fear of reprisals from the officials.
There is NO documented armed insurrection by Christ's followers in the first few hundred years of the church. Christians went to exemplary deaths WITHOUT seeking to defend themselves. Do a little research on this.
Why do you suppose that Christians never faced the lions with swords in the arena? Were Christians known as sword fighters in the first few hundred years? I challenge anyone to find ANY shred of evidence that supports Christians as swordmen at least until the establishment of the church sytem (spiritual Babylonian captivity) in the 4th century AD. Constantine is the first to equate the Cross with the sword.
We must choose to follow Constantine...or Christ.
Besides, your two arguments are in conflict. On the one had, you claim the Greek word for sword/dagger was added to the text. On the other hand you claim it really means a paring knife, in effect saying the term IS there. Which is it?
E-sword is a simple, somewhat simplistic tool and is only good for basic things. It fails in this situation. Invest in Biblesoft or go here:
sword luke 22-36.jpg
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