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Thread: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

  1. #16

    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Jesus said that the binding of the strong man was to take his spoils, so if this is in the present times since the cross, then why is not everyone saved?

    Does Jesus only take some of satans spoils or all?

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by Caleb View Post
    Jesus said that the binding of the strong man was to take his spoils, so if this is in the present times since the cross, then why is not everyone saved?

    Does Jesus only take some of satans spoils or all?
    The other point to make is that making the "strongman" out to be Satan isn't the best exegesis of that passage.
    The Rookie

    Twelve is the number of government. Thus, it is quite apropos that I am on my way towards wielding the power of twelve bars - each bar like, say, a tribe.....or a star.....or, maybe an apostle. A blue apostle. Like apostle smurfs. Does anyone remember smurfs? And all the controversy about them being from the devil? It's probably bad that I juxtaposed "apostle" and "smurf" in the same sentence. But then, I probably lost you at "blue apostle". Yes, my friends, this is what "rare jewel of a person" is actually implying. "Rare Jewel of a Person" really means, "Potentially Insane".

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by the rookie View Post
    I have a question for my friends that interpret Rev. 20 as a present-day reality, thus interpreting the "binding of Satan" and his consignment to the prison of the bottomless pit to mean that, as the former "god of this present age" who has "blinded the minds" of those for whom the gospel is veiled and are perishing. This is a paraphrase 2 Cor. 4:3-4; of which, perhaps an exegesis of this passage would be helpful as well, if this is the passage that some connect to Rev. 20:1-3?

    Anyways, my question is this: if the interpretation is that the "binding (and imprisonment) of Satan" means that we live in the age in which the gospel is now free to go forth freely and victoriously - unlike the age prior to the cross, in which Satan had dominion and power over the earth, etc. I probably have butchered this interpretation - it sounds a bit dispensational and I'm guessing those who actually hold to this viewpoint can say it better than I just did

    My question is this: if we are in the hour of "binding", what does the hour of "loosing" look like? Is it a return to pre-Calvary demonic rule? What would the difference in practical expression be, theologically, between "pre-binding" and "post-binding" time frames, in the a-mill / post-mill framework?
    I tried to think of how to answer your questions in a way that you could understand and then I remembered that I have given my understanding of the binding of Satan many times on here before so why try to reinvent the wheel, right? So, here is an explanation I've given before regarding my understanding of his binding which covers his pre-binding and post-binding as well, so hopefully this will answer your questions at least somewhat.

    The binding of Satan has to do with him being restrained and not being able to deceive the world as he did before Christ came the first time, rather than being completely restrained and unable to deceive at all. He was bound at the cross. After the cross, he was not able to keep the world in darkness and apart from access to God to the extent that he did before then.

    Heb 2
    14Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; 15And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.

    Col 2
    13And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
    14Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;
    15And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.


    1 John 3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.

    One of the reasons Jesus came was to destroy the works of the devil and set people free from sin. Did He fail? Did the gospel not go out into nations where they never had a relationship with God before? Did He not succeed in delivering the Gentile nations from Satan's grasp? Before Christ came there were very, very few Gentiles that were saved. But things changed after He came. Millions and millions of Gentiles have been saved as a result of His sacrifice for them on the cross. Jesus took the power of death away from Satan that Satan used to use to keep people in bondage to the fear of death. For the most part the Gentiles had no hope for eternal life because they had no relationship with God. That changed once Christ came.

    1 Peter 2
    9But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light; 10Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy.

    Eph 2
    11Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; 12That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:13But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.

    People from the Gentile nations had virtually no relationship with God before Christ came. They were not the people of God. After He came, they could be called the people of God because of Christ. They used to be aliens from the commonwealth of Israel but are brought near by the blood of Christ. No longer did Satan have the grip on them that he once had. He was bound from keeping them in darkness and being "without God in the world" any longer.

    The following passages also speak about the binding of Satan and his angels:

    Matt 12
    28But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you. 29Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

    Mark 3
    26And if Satan rise up against himself, and be divided, he cannot stand, but hath an end.
    27No man can enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he will first bind the strong man; and then he will spoil his house.

    Luke 11
    20But if I with the finger of God cast out devils, no doubt the kingdom of God is come upon you.21When a strong man armed keepeth his palace, his goods are in peace: 22But when a stronger than he shall come upon him, and overcome him, he taketh from him all his armour wherein he trusted, and divideth his spoils.

    The strong man represents Satan as well as his angels (devils, demons). The Greek word deo (Strong's 1210), translated as "bind" in Matthew 12:29 and Mark 3:27, is the same word used in Revelation 20 and can refer to either a literal physical binding or to being symbolically bound such as when Jesus spoke of binding things on earth that are then also bound in heaven (Matt 18:18) or when Paul spoke of being bound in the spirit unto Jerusalem (Acts 20:22).

    The one stronger than Satan that came and overcame him is Jesus. Jesus came and took the power of death away from Satan. Jesus spoiled Satan's goods (the people he had deceived) and his house (his kingdom, the world). He divided his spoils by setting free many who had been under Satan's grasp. The gospel made a huge impact on the world. Millions of Gentiles have come to know Christ in the New Testament time period compared to relatively few having a relationship with God in Old Testament times. After His Spirit came upon the believers at Pentecost, the gospel went out in full force into the world, starting in Jerusalem. This was unprecedented. It was evidence that Satan could no longer stop the spread of God's Word to the Gentile nations and it is in that sense that he is bound.

    When Satan is loosed I believe he will again be able to prevent the gospel from being clearly preached and heard in most of the world and that will allow him to unite his followers together against the church with little to no opposition in one last ditch effort to destroy the church, which we know will fail in the end (Rev 20:7-9). I believe 2 Thess 2:3-12 relates to the time period of Satan being loosed. I believe the falling away Paul talked about will occur because the restraint of wickedness and lawlessness that he talked about will be lifted and Satan will then be free to wreak havoc in the world without much of anything getting in his way as was the case before Christ came the first time. Satan does wreak havoc in the world even now but he has to contend with the preaching of the gospel through the power of the Holy Spirit. He has faced much opposition to his efforts the last 2,000 years or so but I believe that opposition will be removed during his "little season" because of so many people falling away from the faith.

    I'll address your question regarding 2 Cor 4:3-4 in a separate post since this one is quite long already.

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by the rookie View Post
    The other point to make is that making the "strongman" out to be Satan isn't the best exegesis of that passage.
    How about you share your exegesis of the passage then.

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by the rookie View Post
    I have a question for my friends that interpret Rev. 20 as a present-day reality, thus interpreting the "binding of Satan" and his consignment to the prison of the bottomless pit to mean that, as the former "god of this present age" who has "blinded the minds" of those for whom the gospel is veiled and are perishing. This is a paraphrase 2 Cor. 4:3-4; of which, perhaps an exegesis of this passage would be helpful as well, if this is the passage that some connect to Rev. 20:1-3?
    Okay, now I'll tackle this question.

    2 Cor 4:3 But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost: 4In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

    This is speaking of people who have heard the gospel but "believe not". So, this passage is not describing a situation that could be applied to OT times since the gospel had not even been preached to the world yet in those days. It's not as if you can point to this passage as proof that Satan was able to continue doing what he was able to do before Christ's death since this passage doesn't have anything to do with OT times. It is because "them that are lost" choose to "believe not" the gospel that Satan is then able to blind their minds and keep the gospel hidden from them "lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ...should shine unto them.". It isn't as if Satan can just blind the minds of anyone he chooses. None of us would have any hope if that was the case. He can only blind the minds of those who have already decided not to believe the gospel.

    Before Christ came Satan didn't even need to blind people's minds to the gospel since a vast majority of the world was unaware of the gospel and God's word. In Eph 2:11-13 Paul wrote about how the Gentiles were "without Christ" and 'without God in the world" before Christ shed His blood for the world. It was Israel "to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises" (Rom 9:4). For the most part the Gentiles had no clue about any of those things until the gospel was preached to them. Satan played a part in that, but not in the sense that 2 Cor 4:3-4 speaks about. That passage speaks about him blinding people who had heard the gospel but didn't believe it. In OT times he didn't have to try to blind the minds of the Gentiles from understanding the gospel and God's word because they hadn't even heard it. So, his efforts were to keep them from hearing it and its message of the hope of eternal life through Christ rather than trying to keep them from understanding and believing what they heard.

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by Caleb View Post
    Jesus said that the binding of the strong man was to take his spoils, so if this is in the present times since the cross, then why is not everyone saved?

    Does Jesus only take some of satans spoils or all?
    Luke 11:20 But if I with the finger of God cast out devils, no doubt the kingdom of God is come upon you.21When a strong man armed keepeth his palace, his goods are in peace: 22But when a stronger than he shall come upon him, and overcome him, he taketh from him all his armour wherein he trusted, and divideth his spoils.

    It says the one "stronger than he" which should be understood to be speaking of Jesus comes upon the strong man and overcomes him He then "divideth his spoils" not takes all his spoils. People aren't saved by force. Jesus binding the strong man gives people the opportunity to be set free from the strong man but they have to choose whether to take advantage of the opportunity and believe in Him or not. I see no basis for reading the parables He told regarding the strong man and thinking they had anything to do with everyone being saved. It has to do with everyone being given the opportunity to be saved but everyone must choose whether to believe in Christ or not.

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by John146 View Post
    Luke 11:20 But if I with the finger of God cast out devils, no doubt the kingdom of God is come upon you.21When a strong man armed keepeth his palace, his goods are in peace: 22But when a stronger than he shall come upon him, and overcome him, he taketh from him all his armour wherein he trusted, and divideth his spoils.

    It says the one "stronger than he" which should be understood to be speaking of Jesus comes upon the strong man and overcomes him He then "divideth his spoils" not takes all his spoils. People aren't saved by force. Jesus binding the strong man gives people the opportunity to be set free from the strong man but they have to choose whether to take advantage of the opportunity and believe in Him or not. I see no basis for reading the parables He told regarding the strong man and thinking they had anything to do with everyone being saved. It has to do with everyone being given the opportunity to be saved but everyone must choose whether to believe in Christ or not.


    I can't say that I see the connection to the binding of the strong man with that of the binding of satan in Rev 20, but I can say that I would agree, in that context, that the strong man is meaning satan and his demons, and the one stronger than him is meaning Jesus. If the one stronger than him is meaning Jesus, then who would Jesus be stronger than? Mortal men? I would think spirit creatures fits the context better, as in satan and his demons, since both are actually mentioned and are part of the context leading up to Jesus saying this about the strong man..

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by John146 View Post

    When Satan is loosed I believe he will again be able to prevent the gospel from being clearly preached and heard in most of the world and that will allow him to unite his followers together against the church with little to no opposition in one last ditch effort to destroy the church, which we know will fail in the end (Rev 20:7-9). I believe 2 Thess 2:3-12 relates to the time period of Satan being loosed. I believe the falling away Paul talked about will occur because the restraint of wickedness and lawlessness that he talked about will be lifted and Satan will then be free to wreak havoc in the world without much of anything getting in his way as was the case before Christ came the first time. Satan does wreak havoc in the world even now but he has to contend with the preaching of the gospel through the power of the Holy Spirit. He has faced much opposition to his efforts the last 2,000 years or so but I believe that opposition will be removed during his "little season" because of so many people falling away from the faith.

    .

    If I weren't currently premil, no doubt, this would be the way I would lean as well. But something interesting I noted in this passage.

    2 Thessalonians 2:9 Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,

    This seems to indicate at the time satan works these signs and lying wonders, that all power is given to him to do so. It's almost like, if any signs and wonders are going on at the time, satan would be solely responsible for all of them. Otherwise why say he has all power? Which could also indicate he's been loosed from his binding. The only thing I don't notice in the context tho, is how satan is preparing anyone here for the battle shown in Rev 20, Gog and Magog.

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    The thousand year period in question is the amount of time between the death and the resurrection of the dragon. To die is often depicted as being shackled and imprisoned within the earth, and the grave is characterized as being ceaselessly hungry or bottomless. This vision is thematically following the death and resurrection of the beast (11.7; 13.3), the two witnesses (11.7-12), Babylon (17.1, 16; 18.10, 21; 19.1-3), and Jerusalem (21.2, 9-10), all of which are traced from the template of Jesus' own death and resurrection (1.18; 5.6). The seven churches wouldn't have said that they were "in" the thousand years, anymore than the Roman Christian martyrs would've believed that they were "in" the three and a half days (11.8), or the persecuted saints of Smyrna would have thought that they were "in" the ten days of tribulation (2.10).
    analyze. synthesize. repeat.

    *It is the next chapter of my life, whether I'm ready or not. My time here in these forums has come to its close. I bless you as I go!*

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by John146 View Post
    How about you share your exegesis of the passage then.
    Jesus was talking about casting a spirit out of a person - an individual. Not "the earth". If it's "Satan" and "the earth" that are in view in the passage, then Luke 11:24-26 is even more terrifying; because it means that the "unbound Satan" comes back "7 times stronger" than before. Or, it means that "7 Satans" take possession of the earth, nullify the advancement of the kingdom, "and the state of the earth is worse than the first".

    In other words, the context is obvious: Jesus is stronger than a demon possessing a human, but the issue isn't Jesus' strength, or ability to deliver a man - it's the man's desire to be free and live free after deliverance that is the greater issue. We don't want to just exercise authority and cast out demons by the name of Jesus; we want to prepare the heart to live a "demon-free life" that has no desire to empower, feed, and "befriend" (by sinful choices) evil spirits. That is what Jesus is talking about - not "the earth" being free of a "bound Satan".
    The Rookie

    Twelve is the number of government. Thus, it is quite apropos that I am on my way towards wielding the power of twelve bars - each bar like, say, a tribe.....or a star.....or, maybe an apostle. A blue apostle. Like apostle smurfs. Does anyone remember smurfs? And all the controversy about them being from the devil? It's probably bad that I juxtaposed "apostle" and "smurf" in the same sentence. But then, I probably lost you at "blue apostle". Yes, my friends, this is what "rare jewel of a person" is actually implying. "Rare Jewel of a Person" really means, "Potentially Insane".

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by John146 View Post
    Okay, now I'll tackle this question.

    2 Cor 4:3 But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost: 4In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

    This is speaking of people who have heard the gospel but "believe not". So, this passage is not describing a situation that could be applied to OT times since the gospel had not even been preached to the world yet in those days. It's not as if you can point to this passage as proof that Satan was able to continue doing what he was able to do before Christ's death since this passage doesn't have anything to do with OT times. It is because "them that are lost" choose to "believe not" the gospel that Satan is then able to blind their minds and keep the gospel hidden from them "lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ...should shine unto them.". It isn't as if Satan can just blind the minds of anyone he chooses. None of us would have any hope if that was the case. He can only blind the minds of those who have already decided not to believe the gospel.

    Before Christ came Satan didn't even need to blind people's minds to the gospel since a vast majority of the world was unaware of the gospel and God's word. In Eph 2:11-13 Paul wrote about how the Gentiles were "without Christ" and 'without God in the world" before Christ shed His blood for the world. It was Israel "to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises" (Rom 9:4). For the most part the Gentiles had no clue about any of those things until the gospel was preached to them. Satan played a part in that, but not in the sense that 2 Cor 4:3-4 speaks about. That passage speaks about him blinding people who had heard the gospel but didn't believe it. In OT times he didn't have to try to blind the minds of the Gentiles from understanding the gospel and God's word because they hadn't even heard it. So, his efforts were to keep them from hearing it and its message of the hope of eternal life through Christ rather than trying to keep them from understanding and believing what they heard.
    This doesn't really explain, "bound, sealed, and unable to deceive the nations any longer." The "nations" would include "people who heard the gospel but didn't believe it", no?
    The Rookie

    Twelve is the number of government. Thus, it is quite apropos that I am on my way towards wielding the power of twelve bars - each bar like, say, a tribe.....or a star.....or, maybe an apostle. A blue apostle. Like apostle smurfs. Does anyone remember smurfs? And all the controversy about them being from the devil? It's probably bad that I juxtaposed "apostle" and "smurf" in the same sentence. But then, I probably lost you at "blue apostle". Yes, my friends, this is what "rare jewel of a person" is actually implying. "Rare Jewel of a Person" really means, "Potentially Insane".

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by Nihil Obstat View Post
    The thousand year period in question is the amount of time between the death and the resurrection of the dragon. To die is often depicted as being shackled and imprisoned within the earth, and the grave is characterized as being ceaselessly hungry or bottomless. This vision is thematically following the death and resurrection of the beast (11.7; 13.3), the two witnesses (11.7-12), Babylon (17.1, 16; 18.10, 21; 19.1-3), and Jerusalem (21.2, 9-10), all of which are traced from the template of Jesus' own death and resurrection (1.18; 5.6). The seven churches wouldn't have said that they were "in" the thousand years, anymore than the Roman Christian martyrs would've believed that they were "in" the three and a half days (11.8), or the persecuted saints of Smyrna would have thought that they were "in" the ten days of tribulation (2.10).
    Satan is dead ?
    The Rookie

    Twelve is the number of government. Thus, it is quite apropos that I am on my way towards wielding the power of twelve bars - each bar like, say, a tribe.....or a star.....or, maybe an apostle. A blue apostle. Like apostle smurfs. Does anyone remember smurfs? And all the controversy about them being from the devil? It's probably bad that I juxtaposed "apostle" and "smurf" in the same sentence. But then, I probably lost you at "blue apostle". Yes, my friends, this is what "rare jewel of a person" is actually implying. "Rare Jewel of a Person" really means, "Potentially Insane".

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by the rookie View Post
    I have a question for my friends that interpret Rev. 20 as a present-day reality, thus interpreting the "binding of Satan" and his consignment to the prison of the bottomless pit to mean that, as the former "god of this present age" who has "blinded the minds" of those for whom the gospel is veiled and are perishing. This is a paraphrase 2 Cor. 4:3-4; of which, perhaps an exegesis of this passage would be helpful as well, if this is the passage that some connect to Rev. 20:1-3?

    Anyways, my question is this: if the interpretation is that the "binding (and imprisonment) of Satan" means that we live in the age in which the gospel is now free to go forth freely and victoriously - unlike the age prior to the cross, in which Satan had dominion and power over the earth, etc. I probably have butchered this interpretation - it sounds a bit dispensational and I'm guessing those who actually hold to this viewpoint can say it better than I just did

    My question is this: if we are in the hour of "binding", what does the hour of "loosing" look like? Is it a return to pre-Calvary demonic rule? What would the difference in practical expression be, theologically, between "pre-binding" and "post-binding" time frames, in the a-mill / post-mill framework?
    I just went back and grabbed the OP as to not get side tracked...wouldn't want to be one of those long winded people

    Since the main part of this is regarding the "darkness" that will happen at the end of the Millennial, which I think we both agree is a set time frame in which the Heir of the Davidic dynasty is indeed actually ruling the earth, with His saints(resurrected ones)....that would be some confusion out of the way.

    I was considering on this earlier this morning..and considering "darkness", and not to say I have an answer, just thoughts for pondering while considering what it means regarding this rebellion that will happen at that time. (Rev 20:7-10)

    In a nutshell, could this 'darkness', be the darkness within mens hearts.....that the darkness is the sinful nature within a mans heart? Considering the 'darkness' as other than... the Gospel not having been revealed as we have had it revealed in the NT...just for a minute for the sake of conversation.

    So it isn't that the "Light" of God is not present in some way, but that men refuse it. I mean looking back we have men who spoke to God and God spoke to them. Even Cain spoke directly to God and God to Him. In other words (and trying not to let my dispensation dovey feathers show to much because that is not my point at all) consider the time frame from Adam and Eve -to- Noah....there were human beings with some pretty incredible communications with God...I think we underestimate what these earliest people understood about God. True, they did not have the Gospel revealed to them as we have had, but they still were very much aware and had communication with God. And they had to make the same choice...believe and follow, or reject Him. And we know by the time of Noah the latter was the choice with the exception of 8 people.

    Then we go again....until we reach the whole Tower of Babel incident. These folks were not unaware of Almighty God...the Gospel as hadn't been revealed as in the NT, but they knew something about Almighty God because they decided to go their own way from Him.

    Then we travel through time to Abraham, a man believing God and a righteous man but by the time we get through the Egyptian bondage years we are back to those who know the stories, and are aware of God. When God comes for them, with some pretty mighty signs...they still so easily stray and stumble.

    Even amongst the true believers...we mess up, we all to often, and all to easily, as hard as it is to say...follow our sinful natures.

    It is not that there is no light, or that the light is not sufficient to reveal God...but that no matter how the light is presented, men do not see it or if they see it even, they refuse it. And with Jesus First Advent the Light was manifest literally amongst men, and they still did not see it and/or accept. Men can even see the Light and refuse it. By the time we reach the rebellion of men in Rev 20, we will have had the Light, manifest in glory, not in humility as in the First Advent...and men still, will choose the darkness, and the darkness is within them...the sinful nature. They choose, as Adam and Eve, to rebel against the Light they are very well aware of, and have seen, by following the Liar. It is the darkness within the heart of a man that allows him to be deceived in the first place even. The pages of the Bible tell us of the many ways and times God has made the Light visible to men, and we have seen that men just keep coming up with new ways to rebel against and refuse Him.

    So the 'darkness' is within, as it always has been?

    My point is, can we really say it is due to a 'reverting' back, or otherwise lack of light, when for a thousand years the glorified Light, King of kings and Lord of lords has been ruling upon the earth. And not an earth as we know it now, but a blessed earth under the hand of the King....upon His shoulders.






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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by the rookie View Post
    Satan is dead?
    Though I'm an amillennialist, I do not believe that the thousand years are occurring right now. The dragon (Satan) didn't really die and rise again, nor did the sea-beast (Nero), nor did the two witnesses (the church). These visions are thematically structured according to Jesus' death and resurrection.
    analyze. synthesize. repeat.

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    Re: Question about the "binding of Satan" from Revelation 20 -

    Quote Originally Posted by Nihil Obstat View Post
    The thousand year period in question is the amount of time between the death and the resurrection of the dragon. To die is often depicted as being shackled and imprisoned within the earth, and the grave is characterized as being ceaselessly hungry or bottomless. This vision is thematically following the death and resurrection of the beast (11.7; 13.3), the two witnesses (11.7-12), Babylon (17.1, 16; 18.10, 21; 19.1-3), and Jerusalem (21.2, 9-10), all of which are traced from the template of Jesus' own death and resurrection (1.18; 5.6). The seven churches wouldn't have said that they were "in" the thousand years, anymore than the Roman Christian martyrs would've believed that they were "in" the three and a half days (11.8), or the persecuted saints of Smyrna would have thought that they were "in" the ten days of tribulation (2.10).


    Nihil, sometimes I suspect it's lonely for you when it comes to certain Scriptures. But don't take that the wrong way tho. What I mean is, where would you find anyone willing to explore this perspective with you? I'll be honest, I can somewhat see the logic to this perspective, yet at the same time, I can't help but thinking how overly complicated it must be, in order to understand this perspective. Seriously, this perspective is very interesting, at least to me. But I wouldn't even know where to begin, in order to explore a perspective like this. Where do you come up with these things to begin with? Are these solely your thoughts, or are you borrowing these thoughts from someone else?

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