Personally I find it totally unreasonable to conclude, that in 70 AD, shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be. This earth age is not finished yet. This teaching makes it look like no one has much to worry about after 70 AD, since now the worst of the worst would be in the past. John 8:32 made an excellent point in post #57, when he stated..."This became possible in the early 1950's when the U.S. and the Soviet Union had stock piled enough weaponry to destroy all life off of the earth many times over". That is a spot on observation, not that I haven't made the same observations myself pretty much, which is why I fully agree with him.
Daniel 12:1 And at that time shall Michael stand up, the great prince which standeth for the children of thy people: and there shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time: and at that time thy people shall be delivered, every one that shall be found written in the book.
2 And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
This clearly proves your conclusions incorrect, unless you want to say that verse 2 occured in the first century, in 70 AD or so.
and there shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time:
If this is still future, but the following is past...shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be...then someone isn't allowing the two testaments to interpret one another.
Look at this side by side.
then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
What does it say at the end of that verse? no, nor ever shall be.
and there shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time:
If the former is past, but the latter is still future, then how could Jesus be so incorrect in Matt 24, when He should have known the Scriptures in Daniel 12? Why would He contradict the Scriptures in Daniel 12, by saying that there is an even greater time of trouble than that, meaning what happened in 70 AD? I'm not saying what happened in 70 AD was not devastating. But why would it be even more devastating than the Holocaust for example? No one would conclude Jesus was referring to the Holocaust in Matt 24, even tho millions of innocent Jews were persecuted and lost their lives as well.
BTW, the main purpose for this thread was the timeline in the Luke 17 account, and what that tells us about the order of events in the other parallel accounts. It seems like no one is wanting to deal with that, besides BB2.





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