Besides me, there is no savior ???

[Protective Angel]

Big shocker when I seen this scripture.

Two different questions in this post.

Explain this scripture:

Isaiah 43
¹¹ I, even I, am the Lord; and beside me there is no saviour.

Is this Judaism?


Does this verse explain it? :
John 10
30 I and my Father are one.



Here is an example, how the New Testament overrides the Old Testament :
Matthew 5
38 Ye have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth:

39 But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on thy right cheek, turn to him the other also.


Is this correction by Jesus, what Judaism should move towards? That the New Testament has updated the Old Testament by Jesus since according to John 10:30 Jesus and the father are one.





The second question : Will God go away or die???

This scripture made me ask :
Isaish 43
¹⁰ Ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.




Just found I needed some clearing up on verses here. Thanks for helping.

[Vhayes]

The second question : Will God go away or die???

This scripture made me ask :
Isaish 43
¹⁰ Ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.


Just found I needed some clearing up on verses here. Thanks for helping.

No - God just "is". That's the reason when Moses asked Him His name, He said, I AM - not I WAS, not I WILL BE just I AM. No beginning, no end - always I AM.

[amazzin]

I love it!!!....

No - God just "is". That's the reason when Moses asked Him His name, He said, I AM - not I WAS, not I WILL BE just I AM. No beginning, no end - always I AM.

[andrew_no_one]

Hey there! On Isaiah 43:10, I think He's saying that there are no other gods; none that came before Him and none that will come. Not that God will die, wouldn't that be aweful?!
I don't think that the NT overrules the OT, but Jesus does clarify and expound on the law. For example, lust = adultery and hatred = murder; a man would never have assumed that without Christ's teachings.
On vengeance (eye for an eye), remember that God has reserved that for Himself. He shall repay and He shall avenge, we are to forgive.

[andrew_no_one]

No - God just "is". That's the reason when Moses asked Him His name, He said, I AM - not I WAS, not I WILL BE just I AM. No beginning, no end - always I AM.

I like that

[Indueseason]

Big shocker when I seen this scripture.

Two different questions in this post.

Explain this scripture:

Isaiah 43
¹¹ I, even I, am the Lord; and beside me there is no saviour.

Is this Judaism?


Does this verse explain it? :
John 10
30 I and my Father are one.



Here is an example, how the New Testament overrides the Old Testament :
Matthew 5
38 Ye have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth:

39 But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on thy right cheek, turn to him the other also.


Is this correction by Jesus, what Judaism should move towards? That the New Testament has updated the Old Testament by Jesus since according to John 10:30 Jesus and the father are one.





The second question : Will God go away or die???

This scripture made me ask :
Isaish 43
¹⁰ Ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.




Just found I needed some clearing up on verses here. Thanks for helping.

ALL scripture is true, they all agree. If we think we have two contradicting verses, then we do not understand one of them

blessings to you

[Traveler]

The second question : Will God go away or die???

This scripture made me ask :
Isaish 43
10 Ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.

That is one verse that has gotten me in a lot of trouble in the past, but for what it is worth this is the conclusion that I came to. Keep in mind this is not doctrine but just my own ideas.

There is nothing that currently exists that God did not create. Now God the Father has a body and he sits on the throne

Now where was God before he made his body and his throne to sit on?

The conclusion I came to is that God proper is the Holy Spirit. He created his celestial body and throne to give his creation a focal point for communications and worship etc. So in effect what you have is God in two forms, The Holy Spirit who is omni present and God the Father who is located in the throne room of Heaven. When you direct your prayers to God you are directing them to the Father as your point of focus but the prayer is heard and acknowledged because the Holy Spirit is everywhere all at once. Perhaps at some very distant point in the future creation will develop to the point where the bodily form of God will no longer be required as a focal point for his creation.

Keep in mind this is just some of my logical deductions and is not to be taken as doctrine in any way. If anyone else has a better way to explain this specific verse then go for it.

[aftertheflood]

You have to understand Hebraic thought here. When He says "before me" we are inclined to put this in a temporal context only. This is an incorrect approach. The word "before" means "face" in that there is not the face of any God but Him. This passage speaks of the totality of God, that He and He alone is God. To a Hebrew there is no existence a part from God. Therefore existence is because God is and if God was ever not, then existence never could be.

[Protective Angel]

ALL scripture is true, they all agree. If we think we have two contradicting verses, then we do not understand one of them

blessings to you

I think I answered my own question that was asked first.

That according to the scriptures I listed :
Isaiah 43:11
John 10:30
Matthew 5:38-39

These 3 are one question.

A Paster today told me that instead of useing the word correction, It would be more proper to say fulfills scripture.