Re: If The Wages of Sin is Death, Then....
Yes, but was Jesus "being made sin" the cause of His death? What exactly does Paul mean by this expression?
Originally Posted by vanguard
2 Corinthians 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
Many see this in the light you seem to offer, that Jesus was "transformed" into sin on the cross (and also other things, like cancer, sickness of every kind, etc.). However, it is possible to see Paul talking of Jesus' incarnation here. Compare the verse with that of Romans 8:
Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: 4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
To me, Paul is saying very much the same thing in both of these passages, that Jesus in His incarnation took on "the law of sin and death" in humanity. (Romans 8:1 There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. 2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.)
As I offered before in the thread:
Hebrews 2:9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man. ... 14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; 15 And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.
It was through Jesus' sinless life and death as a man. For Jesus to die, the incarnation was a must.
Here is a comparison of 2 Corinthians 5:21 and Romans 8:3-4 that might be helpful:
[The green will be from Romans 8:3-4]:
2 Corinthians 5:21 For he [God] hath made him to be sin [sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh,] for us [and for sin], who knew no sin [condemned sin in the flesh]; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him [That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us].
If we accept that Paul was saying that Jesus was "transformed" into sin on the cross, then how do we make sense of Romans 8:1-4? I suggest that Romans 8:1-4 reveals quite a lot about how to view 2 Corinthians 5:21.
I Samuel 3:10 And the LORD came, and stood, and called as at other times, Samuel, Samuel. Then Samuel answered, Speak; for thy servant heareth.