Eyelog,
I’m a bit slow, but I’ve finally taken care of some other things that needed attention and can now address, as promised, the points you raised regarding “that with is perfect” (1Cor. 13:10).
I agree, of course, with all of this but I’m curious why you didn’t bother to give any examples of where this word was used in the New Testament. You did give some NT examples of the
root word
telos (which I will discuss momentarily), but none for
teleios. Strange. Well, let me do that for you.
- Matt. 5:48. “Be ye therefore perfect even as your Father in heaven is perfect.”
- Matt. 19:21. “…if thou wilt be perfect…”
- Rom. 12:2. “that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect will of God.”
- 1Cor. 2:6. “…we speak wisdom among them that are perfect…”
- 1Cor. 13:10. “But when that which is perfect is come…”
- 1Cor. 14:20. “…but in understanding be men.”
- Eph. 4:13. “Till we all come… unto a perfect man…”
- Phil. 3:15. “Let us therefore, as many as be perfect be thus minded…”
- Col. 1:28. “…that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus.”
- Col. 4:12. “…that ye may stand perfect and complete in the will of God.”
- Heb. 5:14. “But strong meat belongeth to them that are of full age...”
- Heb. 9:11. “…a greater and more perfect tabernacle…”
- James 1:4. “But let patience have her perfect work, that ye may be perfect and entire, wanting nothing.”
- James 1:17. “Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above…”
- James 1:25. “But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty…”
- James 3:2. “…the same is a perfect man…”
- 1John 4:18. “…perfect love casteth out fear…”
The reason I thought it important to put these passages before you is so that you can see that in
none of them, unless our problem passage in 1Cor. 13:10 is the exception, is
teleios used in reference to Christ. In two places (Matt. 5:48 and 1John 4:18) it is used in reference to love. In one place it is used in reference to patience (James 1:4a). In one place (James 1:17) it is used of God’s gifts generally. In one place (Heb. 9:11) it seems to refer to heaven. In two places (Rom. 12:2 and James 1:25) it refers to the Word of God. And in all the other places it is used in reference to Christians, or more specifically, to their spiritual maturity.
I confess that I found it a little bit odd that you observed the “Passover” in your comments, more or less “passing over” the actual word used in 1Cor. 13:10 in favor of discussing the
root of that word. After reading your post, I understand why you did it, but I don’t think that even the root word gives you the support that you think it does, nor that you need it to provide in order to support your conclusions regarding 1Cor. 13:10. After introducing the root word
telos you proceeded to offer a series of passages where that particular word was used, whereupon you then offered the conclusion…
And then from that, you proceeded to argue that since the root word
telos means “the end of the age” then its derivative
teleios in 1Cor. 13:10 must also be pointing to the end of the age (or more specifically, to the coming of Christ at the end of the age, when we will be given our spiritual, imperishable bodies). Among the flaws in your logic is the fact that
your definition of
telos doesn’t match the definition given by Strong’s, which interestingly enough you provided to us. The fact of the matter is that
telos does not always mean, as you assert, “the end of the age.” It simply means the termination of a thing, or the limit at which a thing ceases to be. A number of places in the NT it is used with respect to the end of the world. But here are some other scriptures where this same word is used and “the end” to which it is pointing is something well short of the end of the age or the end of the world. In the interest of time and space I will not quote the scripture, but I’m sure you have access to an online Bible that you can look them up.
- Matt. 10:22. Used in reference to the end of our lives.
- Matt. 24:6. In my opinion, the “end” here is referring to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70AD.
- Matt. 24:13. Used in reference to the lives of the Christians in Jerusalem prior to 70AD.
- Matt. 26:58. Used in reference to the events that led up to Jesus’ crucifixion.
- Mark 13:13. Used in reference to our own lives, that we should be faithful until death.
- Luke 22:37. Used in reference to the life of Christ being the “end” or fulfillment of OT prophecies.
- Jn. 13:1. Referring to Jesus’ death.
- Rom. 10:4. Referring to the end of the Law of Moses, it’s fulfillment in the coming of Christ.
- 2Cor. 3:13. Referring to the end of the Law of Moses and the beginning of the Gospel age.
- 1Tim. 1:5. Referring to the end, aim, or purpose of the commandment being love.
- Heb. 3:6, 14. Referring to our lifetime on the earth.
- 1Pet. 1:9. Referring to the aim or purpose of our faith, the salvation of our souls.
The point is that
telos does not necessarily mean the end of the age as you affirmed. It simply refers to the end or termination of a succession or series of things, or that by which a thing is brought to a close or finish. Each of our lives will have a
telos that may or may not be at the end of the age. The Law of Moses had its
telos when the Gospel came. The
telos of the OT prophecies was Christ, who fulfilled them.
Your comments on 1Cor. 15:42-55 have no bearing at all on 1Cor. 13:10. I do not disagree with you that when Jesus comes again our mortal, corruptible bodies will be given up and we will be given imperishable bodies. The problem is that 1Cor. 13 is not talking about “perfect bodies.” It is using “perfect” as a contrast with “partial” (we know in part, we prophesy in part). In 1Cor. 13, Paul is not contrasting imperfect, mortal bodies and perfect immortal bodies; he is contrasting imperfect and perfect knowledge and prophesy.
With all due respect, I don’t think
your explanation comes anywhere near dealing with the words in context. So far I haven’t offered my own understanding of what that passage is referring to, but I hope to correct this shortcoming in my next post.
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