It is absolutely a parable, notice to whom Christ was speaking?
Luk 16:14 And the Pharisees also, who were covetous, heard all these things: and they derided him.
Luk 16:15 And he said unto them, Ye are they which justify yourselves before men; but God knoweth your hearts: for that which is highly esteemed among men is abomination in the sight of God.
Now, how did He speak to anyone other than in private instruction to His disciples?
Mat 13:34 All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them:
When the general populace, including the Pharisees were listening, He spoke in parables? Why?
Mat 13:13 Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand.
The dead go to Florida...while waiting to realize their state.
Sunset remembers Eden...sunrise prophesies its return.
After death the body goes into the grave and rots.
The souls of the incorrigibly wicked go to hell for eternity.
The souls of the righteous go to heaven for eternity.
I believe as do many Christians such as the Eastern Orthodox and some High Anglicans that souls which have not fully attained a state of righteousness need to be purified by punishments before they can enter the holiness of heaven. Christians who believe this therefore pray that the souls of the faithful departed will find rest and peace and may be taken into heaven. This is why Christians graves have always been engraved with R.I.P. Requiscant in Pace. Rest in Peace as a prayer for the suffering of the souls of their loved ones.
At the return of Christ the resurrection occurs where the soul is reunited with the body. The righteous continue to live bodily in the New Heavens and the New Earth in an eternity of joy and bliss. The wicked receive in their bodies the same torment that they received in their souls for the rest of eternity.
This is the truth.
Fenris: "There are two ways to shoot an arrow into a bulls-eye You can shoot the arrow into the bulls-eye or you can shoot the arrow and paint the bulls-eye wherever it hits"
Romans 12:19 Don't seek revenge ... give place to God's wrath. For it is written "Vengeance belongs to me; I will repay, says the Lord"
Isa. 30:32
And every blow of the rod of punishment, which the Lord will lay on him, will be with the music of tambourines and lyres; And in battles, brandishing weapons, He will fight them
G_d was gracious He has shown favor
What are you willing to die for? Now live for it!
Parable is the employment of physical existence which are obvious to illustrate a less obvious point of view. For example, use goat/weeds to represent the unsave, use sheep/wheat to represent the saved. Sheep/wheat adn goat/weeds are all physically existing objects which are easily understandable by the audience the Jews at that time. Similarly, hell/soul/Abraham's Bosom, they are all existence easily understandable to the Jews at that time for a point to be made.
Did Christ's parables refer to people and places by name? I don't believe so. That passage (Luke 16:19-31) refers to actual people (Lazarus, Abraham, and Moses) by name and also actual places by name (Abraham's bosom, hell/Hades), so I don't believe it is a parable.
But even if it was a parable, did Christ's parables depict things that didn't exist in real life? No. He spoke of real things in His parables like wheat, tares, leaven, seeds, thorns, the sun and so on. So, there is no basis for thinking that there isn't really a place called hell/Hades. And since there's no basis for thinking that then there's also no basis for thinking that Christ would have made up a scenario in which someone could experience torment there. He wouldn't have made up a scenario that couldn't be true in reality. Since He spoke of someone physically dying and then experiencing torment in hell/Hades there is no reason for us to think that the spirits of unbelievers do not go to Hades and experience torment there when they physically die.
Not always. Why do I have to repeatedly correct you on this? That verse is not saying that He only spoke to the general populace in parables every single time He spoke to them. That verse is only speaking of that occasion in particular. On that occasion He did not speak to that multitude except in parables. But on other occasions He did not always speak to the Pharisees and the multitudes in parables. Here are examples to prove that:
Matt 9:1 And he entered into a ship, and passed over, and came into his own city. 2 And, behold, they brought to him a man sick of the palsy, lying on a bed: and Jesus seeing their faith said unto the sick of the palsy; Son, be of good cheer; thy sins be forgiven thee. 3 And, behold, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This man blasphemeth. 4 And Jesus knowing their thoughts said, Wherefore think ye evil in your hearts? 5 For whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and walk? 6 But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house. 7 And he arose, and departed to his house.
Here, Jesus spoke to the scribes without speaking in a parable. But you're trying to say He never did that. This proves otherwise.
Matt 9:10 And it came to pass, as Jesus sat at meat in the house, behold, many publicans and sinners came and sat down with him and his disciples. 11 And when the Pharisees saw it, they said unto his disciples, Why eateth your Master with publicans and sinners? 12 But when Jesus heard that, he said unto them, They that be whole need not a physician, but they that are sick. 13 But go ye and learn what that meaneth, I will have mercy, and not sacrifice: for I am not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.
This shows Jesus speaking to the Pharisees without speaking to them in parables. So, this also proves your claim to be false. He spoke to the scribes and the Pharisees a number of times without parables. So, I don't know how you can try to claim that He didn't "speak to anyone other than in private instruction to His disciples".
Now, if you still try to claim that he never spoke to a multitude without parables the following verses disprove that claim:
Matt 15:10 And he called the multitude, and said unto them, Hear, and understand: 11 Not that which goeth into the mouth defileth a man; but that which cometh out of the mouth, this defileth a man. 12 Then came his disciples, and said unto him, Knowest thou that the Pharisees were offended, after they heard this saying?
In this passage Jesus was speaking to the multitude and He was not speaking in parables. So, this proves that Matt 13:34 did not apply to all occasions when Jesus spoke to "the general populace, including the Pharisees". So, you can't use Matt 13:34 to support your opinion that Luke 16:19-31 is a parable.
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