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Thread: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

  1. #31

    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Boo View Post
    I hope you can understand that these books you refer to have been generated by those who consider themselves as understanding the meaning of those words 2000 years ago. I have to go by what the scriptures say.

    If the scriptures treat them differently, so do I.
    If you are suggesting the dictionaries are inaccurate then by all means post scriptures you believe define them differently.

  2. #32
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    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by divaD View Post
    John 14:2 In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you. And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also...I see that time agreeing with the following.

    Luke 19:12 He said therefore, A certain nobleman went into a far country to receive for himself a kingdom, and to return.

    I take this to be meaning Jesus when He ascends to heaven, receives for Himself a kingdom, and then returns..IOW the 2nd coming. This kingdom is what He is preparing for them/us, IOW the new Jerusalem which comes down out of heaven from God.
    This is also how I read John 14:2-3. But it is interesting to consider walls' alternative, that the mansions of God are the church.

  3. #33

    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by little watchman View Post
    This is also how I read John 14:2-3. But it is interesting to consider walls' alternative, that the mansions of God are the church.
    Consider this:

    2 Corinthians 5:1 For we know that if our earthly house of this tabernacle were dissolved, we have a building of God, an house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens.

    Here our human body is likened to a "house" and our spiritual body of the resurrection as a "building of God".

    Joh 14:2 In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.

    Though Jesus was a carpenter's son, I do not believe he is literally speaking of building a house in heaven for us but this being a reference to what 2 Corinthians 5:1 touches upon.

  4. #34
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    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by ewq1938 View Post
    Here our human body is likened to a "house" and our spiritual body of the resurrection as a "building of God"....I do not believe he is literally speaking of building a house in heaven for us but this being a reference to what 2 Corinthians 5:1 touches upon.
    I agree that the "building of God" (2 Cor 5:1) is of the same category as "our earthly house;" they are our bodies before and after resurrection: For the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible needs to put on incorruption, and this mortal needs to put on immortality. (1 Co 15:52-53) But if the "mansions" of John 14:2 are the same as the metaphorical buildings of God (2 Cor 5:1), then I think you could say the same of the New Jerusalem in Revelation 21. I suppose this has been done before by the idealists, and it makes me nervous to think that our end-game heavenly mansions are only metaphorical. Aren't we going to have bodies, and need to live somewhere? Don't we have a heavenly city waiting for us? But now they reach forth to a better, that is, a heavenly place. Therefore God is not ashamed to be called their God, for He has prepared a city for them. (Heb 11:6)

  5. #35

    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by ewq1938 View Post
    Jesus' body was dead for 3 days and his body would not be resurrected until after but it is written that when he died on the cross, he resurrected Mat_27:53 . This was a resurrection of the Spirit, which occurs to all that die a human death. As a physical sign of this unseen resurrection, many of the dead in graves literally and bodily resurrected at this same time. All this occurred while he was still nailed to the cross.
    Can you give me one more witness from scripture that Matt 27:53 is speaking of a spiritual resurrection that took place upon death?

    Are there any commentators who believe this was a resurrection other than the resurrection Jesus always associated with three days when speaking of his resurrection?

    Was there anything different about the resurrection of Jesus after three days and three nights that was different of, let's say Lazarus?

    What was the difference in the two?

    When Jesus raised Lazarus from the dead was Lazarus born out of the dead? It is stated Jesus is the firstborn out of the dead. When did that happen?

    Were those people in Matt 27:52 born out of the dead?

  6. #36

    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by percho View Post
    Can you give me one more witness from scripture that Matt 27:53 is speaking of a spiritual resurrection that took place upon death?
    That such a thing happens or another account of it happening to Christ? It's only mentioned here for Christ but many scripture attest to the fact that the spirit lives on after the flesh has died.


    Are there any commentators who believe this was a resurrection other than the resurrection Jesus always associated with three days when speaking of his resurrection?
    From what I have read, many aren't 100 percent sure what it means.

    Was there anything different about the resurrection of Jesus after three days and three nights that was different of, let's say Lazarus?
    No one saw Jesus bodily resurrect.

    What was the difference in the two?
    There are many differences.


    When Jesus raised Lazarus from the dead was Lazarus born out of the dead? It is stated Jesus is the firstborn out of the dead. When did that happen?
    It's a whole different topic.

    Were those people in Matt 27:52 born out of the dead?
    It does not say they were "born out of the dead". They were dead, then came back to life. The important thing is WHEN this occurred, the same day the veil was torn and Jesus resurrected and some of the dead saints bodily resurrected.

  7. #37
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    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by ewq1938 View Post
    If you are suggesting the dictionaries are inaccurate then by all means post scriptures you believe define them differently.
    People do.

    That is where the rub comes in.
    1 Thess 5:23 Now may the God of peace himself sanctify you completely, and may your whole spirit and soul and body be kept blameless at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

    The Greek words for soul and spirit are different, as well.
    I already did.

    I also know that, for some reason, people want to equate them as the same thing. I am not able to do that when I see them referred to separately.

  8. #38
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    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by percho View Post
    What happened to that Holy Spirit the Son of Man was conceived by and imbued with when he became sin for us and died?

    Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.

    Is it on record that this resurrected Son of Man who asscended to the right hand of God his Father received from his Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, that it might be shed on us?

    Acts 2:32,33

    Would this not be a renewing of the Holy Spirit which he (the Father) then abundely shed on us through Jesus Christ? Titus 3:5,6

    From Titus 3:5 would not, "of regeneration," be the very same thing as from Col.1:18, "the firstborn from the dead"?

    Where did the Son of Man go when he died? Did not he himself say he would be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth? Being the soul of the Christ of the loins of David was resurrected from Hades would not Hades be the heart of the earth? If he as said in Eph. 4:9 decended to the lowest parts of the earth would that not be construed as the heart therefore the center of a sphere for anything beyond would no longer be the lowest. And yes I understand it is a metaphore. A metaphore of death.

    Jesus was dead for three days and three nights, the Spirit (Life) he was conceived by and imbued with he commended into the hands of his Father and he, Jesus was dead until the resurrection.

    In 1 Thess 4:13 I believe they were concerned how their dead friends, I call them Larry, Curly and Mo were going to be in the kingdom of God. Larry Curly and Mo not the bodies of or some other part but Larry, Curly and Mo.

    Paul told them if we believe Christ died and rose again, even so, that is by resurrection God will bring them with Jesus into the kingdom of God and that those alive will not precede the dead into the kingdom of God. Luke 19 again. Jesus preached the gospel of the kingdom of God. Everywhere Paul went he preached the kingdom of God.
    Hi Percho

    I think you just jumped to Chapter 16. The text under discussion is Chapter 14.

    But nevertheless, you have a valid point, so I am constrained to answer.

    The eternal purpose of God with man was fourfold;
    1. The man was to be in the image and likeness of God (for displaying an invisible God's attribute visibly)
    2. The man was to subdue and rule the earth (as a replacement government for the previous one under Satan)
    3. The man was to fence-about and bring to order a Garden for fellowship with a Holy God
    4. The man was to be a help meet for the man Jesus ("meet" means "up to the standard of")


    You will notice that two of these things are inward conditions, and two are outward works.

    To achieve this goal in a man who is "made lower than the angels" the man was commanded to eat of the Tree of Life. This eating would have made the man organically one with God. That is, God's nature and life would have permeated him, just like and apple permeates and becomes organically one with a man when he eats one.

    Man sins and the the Tree is barred from him. Christ dies by the "fiery sword" and by resurrection He is in the position to

    • open the way to the Tree of Life again
    • give His resurrection life to the man


    Both these return the man to his original status in that he can become organically one with God and start to display God. But the problem with our Lord Jesus in this whole scheme is His physical Body. How can the physical Jesus enter into a man? Well, He can't. But the Spirit of our Lord Jesus can. So Our Lord Jesus MUST GO physically and be replaced by the Spirit in order to get INTO men. This is the overall scheme of John's gospel.

    To show this process our Lord Jesus tells His disciples in John that;
    1. He will go through death and resurrection to produce many men with His resurrection Life (12:23-24)
    2. He will go to prepare a place for them in His Father's House, the Church (2:16-20, 14:1-2; 1st Tim.3:15)
    3. He will return to put the Holy Spirit IN them for this purpose (14:3, 18-20)


    To do this though He says that He will no longer be physically with them (16:7 - your verse). This made the disciples sad and insecure. So our Lord completes this verse by saying it is expedient that He go away physically so that the INDWELLING Holy Spirit can come to them.

    The remainder of John is the process of our Lord completing this promise. He goes to death, rises after three days, presents Himself to the Father as the firstfruits of resurrection (for the Father has rights to the firstfruits throughout the bible) and then returns to breath Himself into them as the Holy Spirit. Then, 40 days later He makes good the last of the promise and leaves them physically for His sojourn in heaven at the Father's right hand UNTIL He comes again physically to establish, NOT the father's House (for that is for this age), BUT THE KINGDOM (which is for the next age).

    I realize that some of this might be new. In all my travels and meetings with other Christians I meet blank looks when I teach this. I blame the modern "Pastors" for this because instead of being "apt to teach" they are apt to manage the organization and finances of their flock. But just read what I have written again slowly, checking every verse I have produced to document it, and you will start to see the wonderful burden of John in his gospel - the Father's House (and the many "abodes" in it - you and me).

    As to 1st Thessalonians Chapter 4, I don't see a problem. The dead Christians are in Hades. The living Christians in Thessaloniki thought that they would miss the rapture because of this. Paul says NO - they won't. Why?
    1. The Lord has promised to bring His saints with Him for the day of battle (Jude 1:14-15)
    2. And how will this happen? Because the dead Christians (in Hades) shall RISE (to the surface of the earth) first, be joined to their renewed bodies, then the living saints (who are on the surface of the earth) will have their bodies renewed in the twinkling of an eye, AND TOGETHER they will be caught up to meet the Lord. Then IN THIS MANNER - that is, in resurrected and glorified bodies they will descend with the Lord and IN THESE RESURRECTED BODIES be with the Lord for ever. Is this not what the grammar states?

  9. #39

    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Walls View Post
    Hi Percho

    I think you just jumped to Chapter 16. The text under discussion is Chapter 14.

    But nevertheless, you have a valid point, so I am constrained to answer.

    The eternal purpose of God with man was fourfold;
    1. The man was to be in the image and likeness of God (for displaying an invisible God's attribute visibly)
    2. The man was to subdue and rule the earth (as a replacement government for the previous one under Satan)
    3. The man was to fence-about and bring to order a Garden for fellowship with a Holy God
    4. The man was to be a help meet for the man Jesus ("meet" means "up to the standard of")


    You will notice that two of these things are inward conditions, and two are outward works.

    To achieve this goal in a man who is "made lower than the angels" the man was commanded to eat of the Tree of Life. This eating would have made the man organically one with God. That is, God's nature and life would have permeated him, just like and apple permeates and becomes organically one with a man when he eats one.

    Man sins and the the Tree is barred from him. Christ dies by the "fiery sword" and by resurrection He is in the position to

    • open the way to the Tree of Life again
    • give His resurrection life to the man


    Both these return the man to his original status in that he can become organically one with God and start to display God. But the problem with our Lord Jesus in this whole scheme is His physical Body. How can the physical Jesus enter into a man? Well, He can't. But the Spirit of our Lord Jesus can. So Our Lord Jesus MUST GO physically and be replaced by the Spirit in order to get INTO men. This is the overall scheme of John's gospel.

    To show this process our Lord Jesus tells His disciples in John that;
    1. He will go through death and resurrection to produce many men with His resurrection Life (12:23-24)
    2. He will go to prepare a place for them in His Father's House, the Church (2:16-20, 14:1-2; 1st Tim.3:15)
    3. He will return to put the Holy Spirit IN them for this purpose (14:3, 18-20)


    To do this though He says that He will no longer be physically with them (16:7 - your verse). This made the disciples sad and insecure. So our Lord completes this verse by saying it is expedient that He go away physically so that the INDWELLING Holy Spirit can come to them.

    The remainder of John is the process of our Lord completing this promise. He goes to death, rises after three days, presents Himself to the Father as the firstfruits of resurrection (for the Father has rights to the firstfruits throughout the bible) and then returns to breath Himself into them as the Holy Spirit. Then, 40 days later He makes good the last of the promise and leaves them physically for His sojourn in heaven at the Father's right hand UNTIL He comes again physically to establish, NOT the father's House (for that is for this age), BUT THE KINGDOM (which is for the next age).

    I realize that some of this might be new. In all my travels and meetings with other Christians I meet blank looks when I teach this. I blame the modern "Pastors" for this because instead of being "apt to teach" they are apt to manage the organization and finances of their flock. But just read what I have written again slowly, checking every verse I have produced to document it, and you will start to see the wonderful burden of John in his gospel - the Father's House (and the many "abodes" in it - you and me).

    As to 1st Thessalonians Chapter 4, I don't see a problem. The dead Christians are in Hades. The living Christians in Thessaloniki thought that they would miss the rapture because of this. Paul says NO - they won't. Why?
    1. The Lord has promised to bring His saints with Him for the day of battle (Jude 1:14-15)
    2. And how will this happen? Because the dead Christians (in Hades) shall RISE (to the surface of the earth) first, be joined to their renewed bodies, then the living saints (who are on the surface of the earth) will have their bodies renewed in the twinkling of an eye, AND TOGETHER they will be caught up to meet the Lord. Then IN THIS MANNER - that is, in resurrected and glorified bodies they will descend with the Lord and IN THESE RESURRECTED BODIES be with the Lord for ever. Is this not what the grammar states?
    Walls,

    Here is a thought I have thought a little about. Respond if it makes any sense I think it kind of goes along with what you just wrote.

    The first man Adam created in the image of God, male and female. God brings all the animals before Adam and he names them yet there is not found a help meet for him. So God takes from the created man the woman, Gen 2:23 And Adam said, This [is] now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man; A help meet, Comforter translated in Hebrews 13:6 The Lord my helper then Jesus comes along dies, is resurrected, receives the promise of the Holy Spirt, it is shed on us and then we are no longer male and female but one in Christ.

    Is there anything that took place in the garden between Satan, the woman, the man that brought about trespass and sin that has to do with blaphemy of the Holy Spirit God?

    BTW: I just noticed for the first time that Man and Woman in Gen 2:23 are in capital. Does anyone know why that is?

  10. #40

    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by percho View Post
    BTW: I just noticed for the first time that Man and Woman in Gen 2:23 are in capital. Does anyone know why that is?
    There are no capitals in the manuscripts. Someone just felt they should be capped but any capitals anywhere in the bible have no actual meaning.

  11. #41

    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by ewq1938 View Post
    There are no capitals in the manuscripts. Someone just felt they should be capped but any capitals anywhere in the bible have no actual meaning.
    That has always been my understanding yet did not know for sure. I just can't believe that is the first time I notice that in that verse.

  12. #42
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    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by percho View Post
    Walls,

    Here is a thought I have thought a little about. Respond if it makes any sense I think it kind of goes along with what you just wrote.

    The first man Adam created in the image of God, male and female. God brings all the animals before Adam and he names them yet there is not found a help meet for him. So God takes from the created man the woman, Gen 2:23 And Adam said, This [is] now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man; A help meet, Comforter translated in Hebrews 13:6 The Lord my helper then Jesus comes along dies, is resurrected, receives the promise of the Holy Spirt, it is shed on us and then we are no longer male and female but one in Christ.

    Is there anything that took place in the garden between Satan, the woman, the man that brought about trespass and sin that has to do with blaphemy of the Holy Spirit God?

    BTW: I just noticed for the first time that Man and Woman in Gen 2:23 are in capital. Does anyone know why that is?
    It's a bit off the thread but pertinent as resurrection is involved. Eve is a picture of the Church. If Christ is "Firstborn of all creation" (Col.1:15) and He was "before Abraham was" (Jn.8:58), God, Who said "it is not good for a man to be alone" (Gen.2:18) would have meant this in the first instance for the Man Jesus. Our Lord Jesus enjoys all the people as His creation but none are found "up to His standard" or "meet" for Him. Why? Because they do not possess the divine nature that He does. A dog is a very good companion. He is loyal, forgiving, uncomplaining, and affectionate. But a man cannot marry a dog. It is not up to His standard. He will marry a woman who will probably turn out to be less loyal, less forgiving, more complaining and less affectionate. But she's a wo-MAN, that is, up to his (the MAN'S) standard.

    So also with Christ. He must have a Bride that is up to His standard. The way for the Bride to be up to His standard is not education or training. It is by having the same life as Him. Once the life of Christ is infused into a man, that man can now be brought up to Christ's standard.

    Now back to Eve. God does not take one of the animals, however cute, and train it to be a bride for Adam. He causes a deep sleep on Adam and takes something out of him, and with this "part" of Adam, he constructs Eve. This part of Adam contains the nature of Adam. Adam awakes and, notice the wording, says, "bone of my bone" and "flesh of my flesh". What is missing? THE BLOOD! God says that the "life" is in the blood (Gen.9:4; Lev.17:11), so how could Eve have had Adams life without the blood? The "sleep" and "waking" of Adam is a type of resurrection. because when our Lord was resurrected He allowed His disciples to handle Him and said; "Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have" (Lk.24:39), almost the exact words of Adam. The blood is not included. Of course we know that the bones produce blood (red and white cells), but scripture wants to tell us that Eve is part of Adam, not by sperm which is a blood product and produces human life, but by the very source of life, the bone, depicting eternal life which comes from resurrection. That is why in THE Chapter on resurrection scripture tells us that, "... this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption" (1st Cor.15:50). Any man with blood as his life cannot inherit the kingdom of God.

    To inherit the kingdom a man must be born again by the Spirit (which infuses divine life into him - 2nd Pet.1:4), and he must be both symbolically killed (by the death waters of Baptism) for the duration of his remaining life in the flesh (Jn.3:3-6). Later, he must then experience the physical resurrection like Christ's. The rest of men will be raised like men, Christians will be raised like the Man Jesus (Rom.6:5). Whatever was in Jesus at His resurrection will be given to the believer, but not to other men, though they also be resurrected. In fact, our rebirth is because of the resurrection of our Lord Jesus (1st Pet.1:3). God has "begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead."

    That the translators added capitals is understandable, although they are not so in the original Hebrew. We do the same when we want to turn a general term into a proper name, or to emphasize it. Wikipedia for instance says; "Most Western languages (certainly those based on the Latin, Cyrillic, Greek, Armenian alphabets, and Coptic alphabets) use multiple letter-cases in their written form as an aid to clarity. Scripts using two separate cases are also called "bicameral scripts". Many other writing systems (such as those used in the Georgian language, Glagolitic, Arabic, Hebrew, and Devanagari) make no distinction between capital and lowercase letters a system called unicase.

    I cannot see an exchange between Eve and Satan that fulfilled the conditions for blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. Eve was plain deceived and Adam probably loved his wife so much that he joined her (mis)adventure. This happens a lot even today. Men can see their wives entering folly, but go alone because they love them. Adam probably knew that unless he followed Eve he would be separated from her for ever, for God would have to kill her and make another woman out of Adam before they had children. This is pure conjecture and has no biblical evidence. Scratch if you like.

  13. #43

    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Walls View Post
    It's a bit off the thread but pertinent as resurrection is involved. Eve is a picture of the Church. If Christ is "Firstborn of all creation" (Col.1:15) and He was "before Abraham was" (Jn.8:58), God, Who said "it is not good for a man to be alone" (Gen.2:18) would have meant this in the first instance for the Man Jesus. Our Lord Jesus enjoys all the people as His creation but none are found "up to His standard" or "meet" for Him. Why? Because they do not possess the divine nature that He does. A dog is a very good companion. He is loyal, forgiving, uncomplaining, and affectionate. But a man cannot marry a dog. It is not up to His standard. He will marry a woman who will probably turn out to be less loyal, less forgiving, more complaining and less affectionate. But she's a wo-MAN, that is, up to his (the MAN'S) standard.

    So also with Christ. He must have a Bride that is up to His standard. The way for the Bride to be up to His standard is not education or training. It is by having the same life as Him. Once the life of Christ is infused into a man, that man can now be brought up to Christ's standard.

    Now back to Eve. God does not take one of the animals, however cute, and train it to be a bride for Adam. He causes a deep sleep on Adam and takes something out of him, and with this "part" of Adam, he constructs Eve. This part of Adam contains the nature of Adam. Adam awakes and, notice the wording, says, "bone of my bone" and "flesh of my flesh". What is missing? THE BLOOD! God says that the "life" is in the blood (Gen.9:4; Lev.17:11), so how could Eve have had Adams life without the blood? The "sleep" and "waking" of Adam is a type of resurrection. because when our Lord was resurrected He allowed His disciples to handle Him and said; "Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have" (Lk.24:39), almost the exact words of Adam. The blood is not included. Of course we know that the bones produce blood (red and white cells), but scripture wants to tell us that Eve is part of Adam, not by sperm which is a blood product and produces human life, but by the very source of life, the bone, depicting eternal life which comes from resurrection. That is why in THE Chapter on resurrection scripture tells us that, "... this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption" (1st Cor.15:50). Any man with blood as his life cannot inherit the kingdom of God.

    To inherit the kingdom a man must be born again by the Spirit (which infuses divine life into him - 2nd Pet.1:4), and he must be both symbolically killed (by the death waters of Baptism) for the duration of his remaining life in the flesh (Jn.3:3-6). Later, he must then experience the physical resurrection like Christ's. The rest of men will be raised like men, Christians will be raised like the Man Jesus (Rom.6:5). Whatever was in Jesus at His resurrection will be given to the believer, but not to other men, though they also be resurrected. In fact, our rebirth is because of the resurrection of our Lord Jesus (1st Pet.1:3). God has "begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead."

    That the translators added capitals is understandable, although they are not so in the original Hebrew. We do the same when we want to turn a general term into a proper name, or to emphasize it. Wikipedia for instance says; "Most Western languages (certainly those based on the Latin, Cyrillic, Greek, Armenian alphabets, and Coptic alphabets) use multiple letter-cases in their written form as an aid to clarity. Scripts using two separate cases are also called "bicameral scripts". Many other writing systems (such as those used in the Georgian language, Glagolitic, Arabic, Hebrew, and Devanagari) make no distinction between capital and lowercase letters – a system called unicase.

    I cannot see an exchange between Eve and Satan that fulfilled the conditions for blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. Eve was plain deceived and Adam probably loved his wife so much that he joined her (mis)adventure. This happens a lot even today. Men can see their wives entering folly, but go alone because they love them. Adam probably knew that unless he followed Eve he would be separated from her for ever, for God would have to kill her and make another woman out of Adam before they had children. This is pure conjecture and has no biblical evidence. Scratch if you like.
    I like all of that and upon first glance I agree with it. Now let me ask.

    Prior to the death and resurrection of Jesus. What sustained his life that was in him? Was it life that was in the blood? Was it eternal life that was in him?

    Actually in the verses that state Lev 17:11 For the life of the flesh [is] in the blood: 17:14 For [it is] the life of all flesh; the blood of it [is] for the life thereof:----The word life there is neplesh that is soul.
    So the blood furnishes soulish life, as found in the natural man of 1 Cor 15:46 the living soul Adam who was the figure of him, Jesus the Christ, to come.

    Did God, the Father sire, beget a natural Son of Man wherein his life (living soul) was in his blood. Was this Son a prophet like unto Moses and did he prophesy, John 5:26 For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;? Did the Son of God DIE? Did his Father have to raise him from the dead and quicken him in order for him, Jesus the Son to have life?
    John 5:21 For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth; Gal 1:1 Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead
    The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam a quickening spirit. Howbeit that not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.

    Was Jesus the Christ born of the virgin Mary a living soul with the soul that was living because of life in the blood, but the Jesus that was raised from the dead by God the Father was flesh and bone with life in himself.
    Was the promise of the hope of eternal life, made by God before the first living soul Adam was created, made for the Lamb of God, made a little lower than the angels, ordained before the foundation of the world to shed his precious blood?

    Just who, had the inquity of the world put on him and washed away our sin in his blood and through bath of regeneration and renewing of Holy Spirit had been set forth a propitiation (place of mercy)? By the grace of God his Father.

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    Re: What happens after a person dies, according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by percho View Post
    I like all of that and upon first glance I agree with it. Now let me ask.

    Prior to the death and resurrection of Jesus. What sustained his life that was in him? Was it life that was in the blood? Was it eternal life that was in him?

    Actually in the verses that state Lev 17:11 For the life of the flesh [is] in the blood: 17:14 For [it is] the life of all flesh; the blood of it [is] for the life thereof:----The word life there is neplesh that is soul.
    So the blood furnishes soulish life, as found in the natural man of 1 Cor 15:46 the living soul Adam who was the figure of him, Jesus the Christ, to come.

    Did God, the Father sire, beget a natural Son of Man wherein his life (living soul) was in his blood. Was this Son a prophet like unto Moses and did he prophesy, John 5:26 For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;? Did the Son of God DIE? Did his Father have to raise him from the dead and quicken him in order for him, Jesus the Son to have life?
    John 5:21 For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth; Gal 1:1 Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead
    The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam a quickening spirit. Howbeit that not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.

    Was Jesus the Christ born of the virgin Mary a living soul with the soul that was living because of life in the blood, but the Jesus that was raised from the dead by God the Father was flesh and bone with life in himself.
    Was the promise of the hope of eternal life, made by God before the first living soul Adam was created, made for the Lamb of God, made a little lower than the angels, ordained before the foundation of the world to shed his precious blood?

    Just who, had the inquity of the world put on him and washed away our sin in his blood and through bath of regeneration and renewing of Holy Spirit had been set forth a propitiation (place of mercy)? By the grace of God his Father.
    We're way off track here but it might be the only chance to get a word in as the kind of thread that addresses these things doesn't appear often.

    In Genesis 1:11-12 God set forth a principle or law. This was that everything would produce according to it's own seed. In Genesis 3:14-15 it was to be the seed of the woman that would "bruise" Satan's head. So already in Genesis Chapter 3 the stage is set that a MAN would bruise Satan's head, seeing as a man is the seed of a woman (1st Cor.11:12). Thus, our Lord Jesus was, in every respect, fully a man. And this would mean that His human life was in the blood. It also explains why He demanded Baptism. Although His blood was sinless and free of corruption, it still came from Mary, a member of the "Old creation." Thus, He symbolically allows Himself to be "terminated" in the death waters of Baptism, indicating that the "Old Creature" has no part in God's plan. But concerning this blood, though it be from Mary, there there are some profound differences to ours.

    What is commonly called "original sin" is passed from person to person by the seed (sperm) of the man, not the woman (Rom.5:12; 1st Cor.15:22). Sperm is the product of blood, so the sin, death and corruption that we all inherit from our father's blood, permeates our blood. But when Mary was inseminated by the Holy Spirit (Lk.1:35), this line of sin, death, disease and corruption is broken, and our Lord is Jesus is 100% Man by being the seed of the woman, but without sin. That means, unlike all other blood which is forbidden (Gen.9:4 etc.), Jesus' blood could actually be taken in (Jn.6:53-56). This drinking of Christ's blood is the profound explanation that God's goal is for men to have the HUMANITY of Jesus as well as the divinity. But this is deep stuff. Let's not go there yet.

    The Spirit of Jesus would have been profoundly different too. In John 3:6 it clearly states that what is born by the Spirit is spirit. So the birth of our Lord Jesus by insemination of the Holy Spirit would mean that (a) Jesus had a Spirit like every other man, (b) This Spirit was already "born again" (for it is enlivened at birth by the Holy Spirit), and (c) Jesus was God (from the same principle in Genesis 1:11-12). When our Lord Jesus went through resurrection, this miracle, or this experience, was added to His Spirit, and it is then that He "Became the life-giving Spirit" you mention from 1st Corinthians 15:45. The word "became" indicates a process. He was not something, but he "became" something. Example; The pugilist was a normal boxer but he "became" world champion. Our Lord Jesus "had life in Him" and then "Became" the giver of this life too once He had passed through human resurrection.

    The gospel of John first promises that this divine LIFE is available and will be put INTO the believer, and then shows the process whereby our Lord Jesus first puts away the stumbling block of sins and then breathes this divine life INTO the disciple. A while ago there was an energetic discussion on this Forum where I maintained that there are two givings of the Holy Spirit. One on John 20:22, and one in Acts Chapter 2. One is for the INNER life, for it is breathed INTO the believer, and one is for power for ministry and is placed ON the believer. Needless to say, I took quite some incoming fire for this. Why? because the average Pastor/Teacher in a modern Church cannot be bothered to educate his flock that for man to be up to the standard of (meet for) our Lord Jesus, he/she must go through the same process as our Lord Jesus. Our Lord is "born of the Holy Spirit", so must we be "born again" of the Holy Spirit. Our Lord must, as a Man from Mary, be Baptized, so must we. Our Lord Jesus comes out of the death waters of Baptism and is empowered for ministry by the Holy Spirit UPON Him. So must we also, after Baptism, receive the Holy Spirit for power to minister or do the works of God (Act.2:38).

    Finally to your last point, Who raised our Lord from the dead? This question is only problematic because it touches the limits of our human (and fallen) intellect. If you say the Father raised our Lord Jesus, I will agree (Rom.6:4; Gal.1:1). If you say that the Holy Spirit raised up our Lord Jesus, I will agree (Rom.8:11). If you say that our Lord raised Himself, I will agree (Jn.10:17-18). Take your pick. I have a problem with the limits of my intellect, but not with the Word of God.

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