Here is my quote if you don't see the difference its not my fault these are clearly two different statments
This is quite clearly contrasted from the Multitude from many nations(gentiles) who for some reason God doesn't call the House of Israel(even though your claiming the church is Israel)
No mention of the doctrine your claiming from this passage: that now we are Israel. Your claiming the church has replaced Israel and has become a new entity called Spiritual Israel.
This passage claims that through Jesus the animosity between Israel and that Gentiles is broken and now we become citizens and members of the household of God.
14 For he himself is our peace, who has made us both one and has broken down in his flesh the dividing wall of hostility 15 by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace,16 and might reconcile us both to God in one body through the cross, thereby killing the hostility.17 And he came and preached peace to you who were far off and peace to those who were near.18 For through him we both have access in one Spirit to the Father.19 So then you are no longer strangers and aliens,[d] but you are fellow citizens with the saints and members of the household of God.
Your doctrine is false (The church are now a new entity called spiritual or true Israel), Therefore it can't be used as a proof text to support the idea that Revelations 7:4 is speaking about a spiritual Israel. Unless you have another prooftext to prove this doctrine?
You claimed this passage (Ephesians 2) made the Gentiles citizens of Israel and therefore when it says the House of Israel in Revelations 7:4 it could refer to the church.
Is that not what you claimed?
Let me spell it out.
1)I said the multitude comes from many gentile nations - True statement
2)You said the multitude comes from all nations including Israel -True statement
3)Neither of us made the claim that the multitude was all gentiles - False statement
Your trying to say i made statement #3 but i never did do you admit this if you do not that plz post a quote from me where i claim #3 and not #1? It seems you can't recognize the difference between statements 1 & 3.
You said "This is quite clearly contrasted from the Multitude from many nations(gentiles) who for some reason God doesn't call the House of Israel(even though your claiming the church is Israel)"
You didn't say what you had down in #1 I said the multitude comes from many gentile nations
You changed the words "nations" and "gentiles" around with gentiles in brackets as your first statement which makes a lot of difference and places what is in brackets as the description of the previous word . Could you see where I was confused?
IOW this passage doesn't support the idea that the church has become members of the 12 tribes nor that we can be refereed to as the House of Israel. Therefore it can't be used as a proof text that the church is who God meant when he said the 144k were sealed from specifically the House of Israel.
Matt 13:39 doesn't do justice to your case because it talks about a general harvest which can be best described as the rapture. There is nothing to indicate they are the firstfruits here.
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