But the Day of the Lord is also applied in eschatology. Paul does so in 1 Thes 5, in which he applies it to the actual Coming of the Lord, which he addressed earlier in ch. 4. So the Day of the Lord there does *not* include the time that precedes Christ's Coming. Rather, people are to prepare *before* Christ comes. If they do not prepare they will be taken by surprise at the Coming of the Lord, assuming they are still living at that time. Not only so, but Paul says that spiritually ignorant people will actually be declaring a time of world peace when the world is really engaged in antiChristian behavior. They will be taken by surprise at Christ's Coming.
So in this context Paul is applying the Day of the Lord to Christ's actual Coming, and not to the time prior, when men are supposed to be spiritually preparing in a "Dark time."
1 Thes 5.5 Now, brothers and sisters, about times and dates we do not need to write to you, 2 for you know very well that the day of the Lord will come like a thief in the night. 3 While people are saying, “Peace and safety,” destruction will come on them suddenly, as labor pains on a pregnant woman, and they will not escape.
You have no choice but to put *your own position* up against somebody else's position in order to *compare them!* This contrast enables one to better judge between the two positions. I see nothing wrong with that approach.Originally Posted by Jesuslovesus
Clearly, he is talking about Christ's coming.Originally Posted by Jesuslovesus
It's entirely reasonable to compare positions with respect to how we *interpret the Bible.* There is no thought whatsoever on my part to formulate a position apart from the Bible! If you simply quote a passage, and offer no commentary with respect to your own thoughts you will fall into all kinds of errors. The Scriptures need to be studied, and not just quoted! I was in a Christian cult many years ago--for only a short time, until I saw through their deceptions. This cult practiced "pray reading" the Bible. They practiced reciting the Bible without any study, and prayed the words at face value. But the Scriptures can be distorted by a false spirit or by poor exegesis.Originally Posted by Jesuslovesus
Your answers above left much to be desired, so I will elaborate the same way you did--with little explanation.
Here is a prophecy applied to historic Babylon and refers to divine judgment against Babylon at that time:
Isa 13.6 Wail, for the day of the Lord is near; it will come like destruction from the Almighty... 9 See, the day of the Lord is coming—a cruel day, with wrath and fierce anger—to make the land desolate and destroy the sinners within it.
Lam 2.22 In the day of the Lord’s anger no one escaped or survived; those I cared for and reared my enemy has destroyed.
See also Eze 7;13;30--these were historical judgments, against Israel and against Egypt. Egypt was judged by Nebuchadnezzar! They are all called the Day of the Lord.
Both Joel and Amos refer to the Day of the Lord in terms of a false expectation that it will be a blessing, when it will actually be a judgment. And while it is apparent that virtually all of the references to the Day of the Lord concern judgment against the Lord's enemies, there is in context a strong implication that this "coming" of the Lord will be for the purpose of *delivering God's people.* It will result in the *restoration* of God's people. You are so wrong about my studies on this. I studied it a lot.
Acts 2.20 The sun will be turned to darkness and the moon to blood before the coming of the great and glorious day of the Lord. 21 And everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.
What doesn't say "Christ's coming?" Are you talking about 1 Thes 5? For the whole context you need to move back one chapter to ch. 4!Originally Posted by Jesuslovesus
1 Thes 4.16 For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will be with the Lord forever. Ch. 5.1 Now, brothers and sisters, about times and dates we do not need to write to you, 2 for you know very well that the day of the Lord will come like a thief in the night. 3 While people are saying, “Peace and safety,” destruction will come on them suddenly, as labor pains on a pregnant woman, and they will not escape.
Clearly, Paul is referring to Christ's coming, and identifies that with the Day of the Lord which, as I've shown, has to do with bringing judgment against unbelievers or against the spiritually negligent. Though it is judgment for those who remain unspiritual it is salvation for those of us who prove to remain spiritual. In other words, the Day of the Lord *is* the Coming of Christ, and means salvation for the Church and judgment for the unrighteous *at the same time!* It is not so much those who die in the Tribulation, but the fate of those who after Armageddon are selected for *eternal judgment* at Christ's coming.
Your opinion.... [sigh]Originally Posted by Jesuslovesus
Last edited by randyk; Jan 13th 2017 at 02:14 AM.
1. The Day of the Lord has a generic application which can be applied to either a major act of salvation or to a major act of judgment. This is false
2.The Lord has shown up in history many times to bring judgments upon nations. This is true
3. And He has also shown up on behalf of Israel to save her. This is true
4. As I'm sure He has done for Christian countries. This is impossible to prove and therefore false
5. These are all a "Day of the Lord." False
Conclusion: These are all a "Day of the Lord." False
Also i'm not sure what i'm reading in Eze 7,13,30 awesome i see it Eze 30 identify this as the Day of the this is indeed a historical fulfillment of judgments called the Day of the Lord. Well done you want to post this on the DoTL forum for me?
The thing about it is, though, that the word for "destruction" here in 1 Thessalonians 5:3 means "ruination [G3639]" (as opposed to the one meaning, "totally cut off/severed")... it's more like the picture of a rotting apple, than the word for "destroyed [G622] them all" (Lk17:27,29, that second word/meaning ^ ) which occurs at His 2nd Coming to the earth.
At this "ARRIVING of the Day of the Lord [the time period]" the "they shall not escape ['ekpheugó']"... in contrast to the ones (in the same time period) who will "watch, and pray always, [IN ORDER] THAT ye may have strength to FLEE OUT OF/escape ['ekpheugó']" each and every thing that will come to pass DURING that time period... So, the "they" won't be doing this, but the "ye" who heed His word (during that future time period) WILL... In either case, it is describing THE TIME PERIOD (of much duration; rather than a singular 24-hr day).
"AS labor PANG [singular] come on a woman" and we all grasp that the end game does not occur at the moment that first PANG "ARRIVES" (many more follow that one... [Matt24:4-8/ Rev6 Seals])
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