I don't think of Joseph Smith or Mary Baker Eddy.

[well, maybe when I read Rev2:9b, 3:9a I might, lol; ones who believe the "THEN SAITH HE to His servants" means (not the 95ad "The Revelation" as it does mean, but) personal revelations from God to them that they are personally meant to "proclaim" as from Him
through them to the rest of the world 
("wrest"

)]
What I'm saying is, Paul has said:
2Cor11: "26 In journeyings often, in perils of waters, in perils of robbers,
in perils by mine own countrymen, in perils by the heathen [the Gentiles], in perils in the city, in perils in the wilderness, in perils in the sea,
in perils among false brethren"
[and]
1Th2:14 [re: the PRESENT and ONGOING EXPERIENCES they were ALREADY SUFFERING LONG TERM] "For ye, brethren, became followers of the churches of God which in Judaea are in Christ Jesus:
for ye also have suffered like things of your own countrymen, even as they have of the Jews"
...
they were already suffering at the hands of all of these [bolded/underlined ^ ], what's the difference they are to *note especially* as being *different* when the time comes to [supposedly] experience "THE Antichrist" ('whose coming/presence/advent/arrival,' 2Th2:9). How can they [or we] know what's different from all other experiences
they were already experiencing, and that of the future time that leads up to Christ's "return" (since the Church is supposedly to experience "the AC's" presence too). For example, how would one know for a fact that he [the AC] hasn't
arrived 3 years ago (for example) as some ppl DO believe and suggest the time period is presently already in existence (meaning, Jesus will arrive on the scene in about half a year [for example], according to their scheme of things)?
Just a few questions of many that are very unclear to me, in that view. (Besides not seeing ANY passage which refers to our "Rapture" in a post-trib context, etc.) What's the difference between him and all Judaizers
in existence from the beginning [since the first century]??
[edit adding: "when they behold the beast
that was,
and is not, and yet shall be." Rev17:8 (how would this fit? [pretty sure I know what you might say here]; and why does it require the presence of "the Church which is His body" (the one to whom "the Rapture" pertains) on the earth at that future time, as well? Would not the 144,000 be sufficient to the task?? [I've read studies that suggest Paul was a "type" of the future 144,000, with which I am inclined to agree;
and regarding this, Micah 5:3 seems to be saying "FIRST one thing, AND THEN the other [the remnant of His brethren shall RETURN]"
TWO SECTIONS! and the verse even uses the word "UNTIL" (like Rom11:25!)])]
[let me be clear that I am NOT saying they (Judaizers, etc) won't be in existence in the future 7-yr trib... but THAT is not the question concerning which I am presenting to you here in this post]
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