
Originally Posted by
VerticalReality
Wouldn't the same concept also apply to the unmarried? I mean if a married person lusting after another is committing adultery, and hating your brother is same as committing murder, then wouldn't also an unmarried person lusting after another be considered sexual immorality?
Not in the context of divorce, which is the point you seem to be trying to make. We could go as far as virginity as well and applying your standard, marriages to any woman who has lusted is a marriage to someone who isn't a virgin. Also, consider this. Adultery is committed by two parties. You can look up in the old testament how both would be stoned if you like. Adultery of the heart is different in that only one party participates in this sin.
So no, adultery of the heart (a lustful gaze) is not grounds for divorce on account of adultery. We could also go further and discuss the witnesses necessary to prove an account of adultery. The idea just doesn't work VR.
Watchinginawe
I Samuel 3:10 And the LORD came, and stood, and called as at other times, Samuel, Samuel. Then Samuel answered, Speak; for thy servant heareth.
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