
Originally Posted by
kjijujoseph
In the old testament its being told that all the male should get circumcised for them to be saved. But why then is that the Christianity not insisting on the practise of it? From when did the practice got changed and why caused the change while its being told that God's word and law are for ever?
Please do give me a very brief explanation of it.... preferably some add on biblical support will help me in getting my answer.
Circumcision wasn't a requirement for salvation. It was a sign of the covenant God had with Israel.
We are taught that Abraham was saved BEFORE circumcision.
Romans 4:9-12
9 Is this blessedness only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? We have been saying that Abraham's faith was credited to him as righteousness. 10 Under what circumstances was it credited? Was it after he was circumcised, or before? It was not after, but before! 11 And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. So then, he is the father of all who believe but have not been circumcised, in order that righteousness might be credited to them. 12 And he is also the father of the circumcised who not only are circumcised but who also walk in the footsteps of the faith that our father Abraham had before he was circumcised.
In fact, the first several chapters of Romans will develop this topic for you 
Grace to you
If we doubt or do not believe that God is gracious to us and is pleased with us, or if we presumptuously expect to please Him only through and after our works, then it is all pure deception, outwardly honoring God, but inwardly setting up self as a false [savior].... (Part X. XI) Excerpts from Martin Luther, Treatise Concerning Good Works (1520).
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