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View Full Version : Was Mat 28:1 Translated Incorrectly?



The Prodigal Son
Apr 28th 2008, 11:25 PM
Click this link: http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/c.pl?book=Mat&chapter=28&verse=1&version=KJV#1

Does anyone else (besides me) see the Greek word for "sabbath" [Strong's #4521] twice in this verse, yet only translated as "sabbath" once in the KJV (and other English translations).

In my humble opinion, God allowed the translators to make this mistake which was a big blunder, as it has given rise to entire religious doctrinal teachings regarding the sabbath that are in error.

Perhaps the translation should have been one of the following:

"In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first of the sabbath..."

"In the end of the sabbaths, as it began to dawn toward the first of the sabbaths..."

Singular or plural? Does anyone in bibleforums know Greek?

Does anyone here have an opinion of what the bible translation should have been?

Also, see Strong's #4521 mistranslation in Mar 16:2, Mar 16:9, Luk 24:1, Jhn 20:1, Jhn 20:19, Act 20:7, and 1Cr 16:2.

The Prodigal Son
Apr 28th 2008, 11:28 PM
Big blunder on the translators part, not on God's part of course.

God tests His people constantly to see whether they will listen to Him.

This I believe is another one of those tests.

OldChurchGuy
Apr 29th 2008, 01:51 AM
Click this link: http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/c.pl?book=Mat&chapter=28&verse=1&version=KJV#1

Does anyone else (besides me) see the Greek word for "sabbath" [Strong's #4521] twice in this verse, yet only translated as "sabbath" once in the KJV (and other English translations).

In my humble opinion, God allowed the translators to make this mistake which was a big blunder, as it has given rise to entire religious doctrinal teachings regarding the sabbath that are in error.

Perhaps the translation should have been one of the following:

"In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first of the sabbath..."

"In the end of the sabbaths, as it began to dawn toward the first of the sabbaths..."

Singular or plural? Does anyone in bibleforums know Greek?

Does anyone here have an opinion of what the bible translation should have been?

Also, see Strong's #4521 mistranslation in Mar 16:2, Mar 16:9, Luk 24:1, Jhn 20:1, Jhn 20:19, Act 20:7, and 1Cr 16:2.

Please forgive my lack of understanding. Why does this matter? Comparing the current English translation with the proposed translation, it appears both are saying the same thing. What am I missing?

Sincerely,

OldChurchGuy

Clifton
Apr 29th 2008, 01:59 AM
Click this link: http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/c.pl?book=Mat&chapter=28&verse=1&version=KJV#1

Does anyone else (besides me) see the Greek word for "sabbath" [Strong's #4521] twice in this verse, yet only translated as "sabbath" once in the KJV (and other English translations).

In my humble opinion, God allowed the translators to make this mistake which was a big blunder, as it has given rise to entire religious doctrinal teachings regarding the sabbath that are in error.

Perhaps the translation should have been one of the following:

"In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first of the sabbath..."

"In the end of the sabbaths, as it began to dawn toward the first of the sabbaths..."

Singular or plural? Does anyone in bibleforums know Greek?

Does anyone here have an opinion of what the bible translation should have been?

Also, see Strong's #4521 mistranslation in Mar 16:2, Mar 16:9, Luk 24:1, Jhn 20:1, Jhn 20:19, Act 20:7, and 1Cr 16:2.


I things like have:

But late in the sabbaths, at the dawning into the first of the sabbaths, Mary the Magdalene and the other Mary came to gaze upon the grave. Matthew 28:1 LITV

Now after the Sabbath, toward dawn on the first day of the week,1 Miryam from Magdala and the other Miryam came to see the tomb. Footnote:1See Explanatory notes - First Day of the Week. Also Luke 24:1 and John 20:1. Matthew 28:1 The Scriptures 1998+

I checked the Greek - there is just ONE variation - just "Maria" versus "Mariam", which is deemed insignificant since they both translate "Mary" in English.

Both occurences of "Sabbaths" (σαββατων) are PLURAL and are in the Genitive Case (possession, "of"; also origin or separation, "from").

Blessings.

The Prodigal Son
Apr 29th 2008, 02:17 AM
Please forgive my lack of understanding. Why does this matter?

Well, it matters because God said it.


Both occurences of "Sabbaths" (sa▀▀at??) are PLURAL and are in the Genitive Case (possession, "of"; also origin or separation, "from").

And if this is true, then the Saturday sabbaths had ended and the first of the Sunday sabbaths began when Christ rose.

Again, the same mistake in the translation is found in: Mar 16:2, Mar 16:9, Luk 24:1, Jhn 20:1, Jhn 20:19, Act 20:7, and 1Cr 16:2.

Matt14
Apr 29th 2008, 02:41 AM
And if this is true, then the Saturday sabbaths had ended and the first of the Sunday sabbaths began when Christ rose.

Again, the same mistake in the translation is found in: Mar 16:2, Mar 16:9, Luk 24:1, Jhn 20:1, Jhn 20:19, Act 20:7, and 1Cr 16:2.


According to JFB commentary:

towards the first day of the week, or "sabbaths"; so the Jews used to call the days of the week, the first day of the sabbath, the second day of the sabbath, &c. take an instance or two (z).

-

Naphal
Apr 29th 2008, 04:56 AM
Click this link: http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/c.pl?book=Mat&chapter=28&verse=1&version=KJV#1

Does anyone else (besides me) see the Greek word for "sabbath" [Strong's #4521] twice in this verse, yet only translated as "sabbath" once in the KJV (and other English translations).

In my humble opinion, God allowed the translators to make this mistake which was a big blunder, as it has given rise to entire religious doctrinal teachings regarding the sabbath that are in error.

Perhaps the translation should have been one of the following:

"In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first of the sabbath..."

"In the end of the sabbaths, as it began to dawn toward the first of the sabbaths..."

Singular or plural? Does anyone in bibleforums know Greek?

Does anyone here have an opinion of what the bible translation should have been?

Also, see Strong's #4521 mistranslation in Mar 16:2, Mar 16:9, Luk 24:1, Jhn 20:1, Jhn 20:19, Act 20:7, and 1Cr 16:2.


The translation to "week" is meant to convey the meaning not the literal wording. The "first of the Sabbath" simply means the day after the Sabbath, not that Sunday was also a Sabbath. I understand that you want evidence of Sunday being a Sabbath that is official in scripture but the truth is Saturday was the only day of the week commanded to be a repetitive Sabbath, which was fulfilled in Christ. Now whatever day we need rest can be a day of rest or Sabbath while our spirits rest in Him always.

Tanya~
Apr 29th 2008, 05:26 AM
There isn't a separate/different word for 'week.' For example, if you look at the Greek for Luke 18:12 you will see the word used in a way that cannot possibly be interpreted as the weekly Sabbath day. The same word can mean one or the other, depending on the context. I don't think the translators were in error when they translated it the way they did, except maybe for the fact that it is plural not singular.

The Prodigal Son
Apr 29th 2008, 09:06 PM
So, am I to understand that no one in this thread has an explanation of why the plural is used?


Sabbaths instead of Sabbath.


[It is] the glory of God to conceal a thing: but the honour of kings [is] to search out a matter.

Naphal
Apr 29th 2008, 11:06 PM
So, am I to understand that no one in this thread has an explanation of why the plural is used?



Sabbaths instead of Sabbath.



We'd need a competent Greek scholar to answer that. The translators were scholars and rendered it in the singular. There are plurals which have singular meanings so perhaps that's why.

Tanya~
Apr 29th 2008, 11:08 PM
My understanding is that the plural was used because there were two Sabbaths. The beginning of Passover is a Sabbath no matter what day of the week it is that year. So there was the Passover "High Day" Sabbath on Friday, then the Saturday Sabbath, then the women went to the tomb on the first day of the week.

Matt14
Apr 29th 2008, 11:56 PM
So, am I to understand that no one in this thread has an explanation of why the plural is used?


Sabbaths instead of Sabbath.

I gave you one above. The Jews often referred to their days in such a way that the "first of the Sabbaths" was the first day of the week. See the note above from the commentary by Robert Jamieson, A. R. Fausset and David Brown (JFB).

The Prodigal Son
Apr 30th 2008, 12:36 AM
I gave you one above. The Jews often referred to their days in such a way that the "first of the Sabbaths" was the first day of the week. See the note above from the commentary by Robert Jamieson, A. R. Fausset and David Brown (JFB).

Sorry Matt14, my bad. I'll check out that commentary.

Teke
Apr 30th 2008, 08:15 PM
Yes, Matt is right. Israel counted by sevens/weeks. The church continued in this tradition of counting weeks from Pentecost, they just didn't call a week a "sabbath'".