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John146
Jun 23rd 2008, 08:37 PM
Here is the verse in context:

37In the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried, saying, If any man thirst, let him come unto me, and drink.
38He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.
39(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.) - John 7:37-39

I can't find any Old Testament scripture that has those exact words or anything really close to it. He was equating "rivers of living water" with the Holy Spirit. So, do you think Jesus just paraphrasing here or is He referring to some book that was considered scripture at the time but isn't in our Bibles today, such as how Jude 1:14 references 1 Enoch 1:9?

Here are a few verses that He may have had in mind:

3For I will pour water upon him that is thirsty, and floods upon the dry ground: I will pour my spirit upon thy seed, and my blessing upon thine offspring: - Isaiah 44:3

1Ho, every one that thirsteth, come ye to the waters, and he that hath no money; come ye, buy, and eat; yea, come, buy wine and milk without money and without price. - Isaiah 55:1

11And the LORD shall guide thee continually, and satisfy thy soul in drought, and make fat thy bones: and thou shalt be like a watered garden, and like a spring of water, whose waters fail not. - Isaiah 58:11

8And it shall be in that day, that living waters shall go out from Jerusalem; half of them toward the former sea, and half of them toward the hinder sea: in summer and in winter shall it be. - Zechariah 14:8

I tend to think He is paraphrasing but wondered what everyone else thought.

Jubal
Jun 23rd 2008, 08:44 PM
Maybe this is what He was referring to:


For my people have committed two evils; they have forsaken me the fountain of living waters, and hewed them out cisterns, broken cisterns, that can hold no water. -Jeremiah 2:13

O LORD, the hope of Israel, all that forsake thee shall be ashamed, and they that depart from me shall be written in the earth, because they have forsaken the LORD, the fountain of living waters.
-Jeremiah 17:13

matthew94
Jun 23rd 2008, 08:46 PM
Personally, I think it is Zechariah 14:8, especially since it's the only one that uses 'living' waters.

In Zechariah, it was using the material language of literal water flowing out of a literal city
But Jesus uses it to describe the Holy Spirit flowing out of the Spiritual Jerusalem

John146
Jun 23rd 2008, 09:07 PM
Personally, I think it is Zechariah 14:8, especially since it's the only one that uses 'living' waters.

In Zechariah, it was using the material language of literal water flowing out of a literal city
But Jesus uses it to describe the Holy Spirit flowing out of the Spiritual Jerusalem

I tend to agree. Zechariah 14:8 does seem to be the closest to being the scripture that He may have been alluding to in that verse.

Partaker of Christ
Jun 23rd 2008, 11:25 PM
38 He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, ...........out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.

I tend to think that Jesus was refering to the "He that believeth on me" as the scripture hath said.

Not:

38 As the scripture hath said, 'he that believeth on me, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water'

Teke
Jun 23rd 2008, 11:47 PM
Here is the verse in context:

37In the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried, saying, If any man thirst, let him come unto me, and drink.
38He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.
39(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.) - John 7:37-39

I can't find any Old Testament scripture that has those exact words or anything really close to it. He was equating "rivers of living water" with the Holy Spirit. So, do you think Jesus just paraphrasing here or is He referring to some book that was considered scripture at the time but isn't in our Bibles today, such as how Jude 1:14 references 1 Enoch 1:9?

Here are a few verses that He may have had in mind:

3For I will pour water upon him that is thirsty, and floods upon the dry ground: I will pour my spirit upon thy seed, and my blessing upon thine offspring: - Isaiah 44:3

1Ho, every one that thirsteth, come ye to the waters, and he that hath no money; come ye, buy, and eat; yea, come, buy wine and milk without money and without price. - Isaiah 55:1



8And it shall be in that day, that living waters shall go out from Jerusalem; half of them toward the former sea, and half of them toward the hinder sea: in summer and in winter shall it be. - Zechariah 14:8

I tend to think He is paraphrasing but wondered what everyone else thought.

I believe those Isaiah verses would apply, as well as Isaiah 12:3 which says, "You will draw water with gladness from the wells of salvation". Especially in application to what Jesus is referring by the feast (John 7:37).

The "last day, that great day of the feast" is likely the seventh or eighth day of the feast of Tabernacles. Ceremonies include a procession from the pool of Siloam, carrying water and pouring it as a libation at the temple. This commemorates the water flowing from the rock which Moses struck in the wilderness and provides the context for the Lord's words, "if anyone thirsts".
My translation says "out of his heart" not "belly".

davidandme
Jun 24th 2008, 12:19 AM
Jesus was not quoting directly from Scriptures, however He was referring to the feast of the Tabernacles. At the Feast of Tabernacles, water was poured out daily at the altar to remind everyone of the water God miraculously provided for a thirsty Israel in the wilderness. Jesus boldly calls people to Himself, claiming that He can satisfy the inner thirst in man. Jesus boldly calls people to Himself, claiming that He can satisfy the inner thirst in man. God bless and let the Holy Spirit work in you.

HisLeast
Jun 24th 2008, 12:26 AM
Jesus was not quoting directly from Scriptures,


Then how come he said "as the scriptures sayeth"?

davidandme
Jun 24th 2008, 12:42 AM
The scriptures does talk about the feast of the Tabernacles. I believe in Lev 23 and probably other places. Remember all these feasts pointed to Jesus. God bless.

SIG
Jun 24th 2008, 03:50 AM
This commentary gives likely possibilities:

http://www.bible.org/page.php?page_id=1314

There seems to be no universal agreement as to which Scripture is referred to.

Teke
Jun 24th 2008, 01:08 PM
Then how come he said "as the scriptures sayeth"?

I learned to identify the difference between, that which is spoken, and, that which is written. Notice it doesn't say, "that which is written in scripture".;)

This goes along with the way they were to handle the scriptures (Nehemiah). Read them, and teach them (orally). There is always the oral tradition with the written tradition.

BroRog
Jun 24th 2008, 02:31 PM
Since water is being used as a picture of the spirit, perhaps we could find a passage that speaks of the spirit coming out of the belly, or fountain, etc.

godsglamgirl
Jan 15th 2013, 09:10 PM
Here is the verse in context:

37In the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried, saying, If any man thirst, let him come unto me, and drink.
38He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.
39(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.) - John 7:37-39

I can't find any Old Testament scripture that has those exact words or anything really close to it. He was equating "rivers of living water" with the Holy Spirit. So, do you think Jesus just paraphrasing here or is He referring to some book that was considered scripture at the time but isn't in our Bibles today, such as how Jude 1:14 references 1 Enoch 1:9?

Here are a few verses that He may have had in mind:

3For I will pour water upon him that is thirsty, and floods upon the dry ground: I will pour my spirit upon thy seed, and my blessing upon thine offspring: - Isaiah 44:3

1Ho, every one that thirsteth, come ye to the waters, and he that hath no money; come ye, buy, and eat; yea, come, buy wine and milk without money and without price. - Isaiah 55:1

11And the LORD shall guide thee continually, and satisfy thy soul in drought, and make fat thy bones: and thou shalt be like a watered garden, and like a spring of water, whose waters fail not. - Isaiah 58:11

8And it shall be in that day, that living waters shall go out from Jerusalem; half of them toward the former sea, and half of them toward the hinder sea: in summer and in winter shall it be. - Zechariah 14:8

I tend to think He is paraphrasing but wondered what everyone else thought.




Hello, GodsGlamGirl here.... I've been reading through this thread and I don't know whether or not your question has been answered....especially since it was about 4 years ago when you posted...and I've just joined today.

However...

Perhaps the reason that there isn't a universal agreement as to what scripture Jesus is referring to...is simply that everyone is reading the sentence incorrectly.

Here's the sentence/scripture:
vs 38 He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.

The double comma implies a side note... "as the scripture hath said" is the side note... and it actually points to what is said before the first comma rather than what is said after the second comma.

Jesus was not saying " as the scripture hath said out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water"
Jesus was saying "as the scripture hath said he that believeth in me"

In other words Jesus is saying: He that believes I am the Christ... He that believes I am the Messiah as said in the scripture ....then out of "that man's" (his) belly shall flow rivers of living water.

So the scripture that Jesus was referring to is Isaiah 61:1-2...the actual scripture that Jesus read from the scroll in the Temple when he came out of the wilderness and announced himself as the Messiah by reading what the prophet Isaiah had written. Now, that's the scripture Jesus was referring to because that was the scope of his statement.

However,

The scripture that you're looking for which references "the rivers of living waters" and "from whom it shall flow" is actually found in the verse immediately following what Jesus said...John7:39

First lets look at how this all started....

John 7:37-39 opens up at the last day of The Feast of The Tabernacle...
The seventh, and last day of the feast, was The Great Day of Hosanan (Hosanna) which looked forward to the coming of The Messiah. This day also concluded the pouring of the water which symbolized the falling of rain.

So Jesus was telling the crowd that Any man who believed he was The Messiah that the scriptures spoke of in Isaiah 61:1-2, then that man will have rivers of living water flowing from his heart.

John 7:39 tells us that the rivers of living water Jesus was referring to was the the Holy Spirit flowing from the hearts of whoever (us) believes in him......
39 By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were later to receive. Up to that time the Spirit had not been given, since Jesus had not yet been glorified.

This is why we find in vs 40 and 41 the people were saying "Truly this must be the prophet." and Others were saying "This must be The Christ"...they understood the parable...they knew what Jesus was saying.

godsglamgirl
Jan 15th 2013, 09:11 PM
Hello, GodsGlamGirl here.... I've been reading through this thread and I don't know whether or not your question has been answered....especially since it was about 4 years ago when you posted...and I've just joined today.

However...

Perhaps the reason that there isn't a universal agreement as to what scripture Jesus is referring to...is simply that everyone is reading the sentence incorrectly.

Here's the sentence/scripture:
vs 38 He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.

The double comma implies a side note... "as the scripture hath said" is the side note... and it actually points to what is said before the first comma rather than what is said after the second comma.

Jesus was not saying " as the scripture hath said out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water"
Jesus was saying "as the scripture hath said he that believeth in me"

In other words Jesus is saying: He that believes I am the Christ... He that believes I am the Messiah as said in the scripture ....then out of "that man's" (his) belly shall flow rivers of living water.

So the scripture that Jesus was referring to is Isaiah 61:1-2...the actual scripture that Jesus read from the scroll in the Temple when he came out of the wilderness and announced himself as the Messiah by reading what the prophet Isaiah had written. Now, that's the scripture Jesus was referring to because that was the scope of his statement.

However,

The scripture that you're looking for which references "the rivers of living waters" and "from whom it shall flow" is actually found in the verse immediately following what Jesus said...John7:39

First lets look at how this all started....

John 7:37-39 opens up at the last day of The Feast of The Tabernacle...
The seventh, and last day of the feast, was The Great Day of Hosanan (Hosanna) which looked forward to the coming of The Messiah. This day also concluded the pouring of the water which symbolized the falling of rain.

So Jesus was telling the crowd that Any man who believed he was The Messiah that the scriptures spoke of in Isaiah 61:1-2, then that man will have rivers of living water flowing from his heart.

John 7:39 tells us that the rivers of living water Jesus was referring to was the the Holy Spirit flowing from the hearts of whoever (us) believes in him......
39 By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were later to receive. Up to that time the Spirit had not been given, since Jesus had not yet been glorified.

This is why we find in vs 40 and 41 the people were saying "Truly this must be the prophet." and Others were saying "This must be The Christ"...they understood the parable...they knew what Jesus was saying.

John146
Jan 15th 2013, 09:58 PM
Hello, GodsGlamGirl here.... I've been reading through this thread and I don't know whether or not your question has been answered....especially since it was about 4 years ago when you posted...and I've just joined today.First of all, welcome to the forum. Second of all...wow...you're responding to my post from almost 4 years ago? Okay, sure. Why not? :)


However...

Perhaps the reason that there isn't a universal agreement as to what scripture Jesus is referring to...is simply that everyone is reading the sentence incorrectly.

Here's the sentence/scripture:
vs 38 He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.

The double comma implies a side note... "as the scripture hath said" is the side note... and it actually points to what is said before the first comma rather than what is said after the second comma.

Jesus was not saying " as the scripture hath said out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water"
Jesus was saying "as the scripture hath said he that believeth in me"

In other words Jesus is saying: He that believes I am the Christ... He that believes I am the Messiah as said in the scripture ....then out of "that man's" (his) belly shall flow rivers of living water.

So the scripture that Jesus was referring to is Isaiah 61:1-2...the actual scripture that Jesus read from the scroll in the Temple when he came out of the wilderness and announced himself as the Messiah by reading what the prophet Isaiah had written. Now, that's the scripture Jesus was referring to because that was the scope of his statement.Hmmm. I don't think I agree with this. For that to be the case wouldn't Isaiah 61:1-2 need to say "He who believes in me" somewhere? I'm not sure how you're coming to the conclusion that He was referring to that passage. Also, your point about the commas is based on how it was translated in that version in English. It was not originally written in English, it was written in Greek. So, it's questionable as to whether those commas are positioned accurately in that version or not. So, I don't think I agree with your reasoning there, either. I'm still convinced that the part referring to rivers of living water is what He was alluding to as being from scripture.


However,

The scripture that you're looking for which references "the rivers of living waters" and "from whom it shall flow" is actually found in the verse immediately following what Jesus said...John7:39

First lets look at how this all started....

John 7:37-39 opens up at the last day of The Feast of The Tabernacle...
The seventh, and last day of the feast, was The Great Day of Hosanan (Hosanna) which looked forward to the coming of The Messiah. This day also concluded the pouring of the water which symbolized the falling of rain.

So Jesus was telling the crowd that Any man who believed he was The Messiah that the scriptures spoke of in Isaiah 61:1-2, then that man will have rivers of living water flowing from his heart.

John 7:39 tells us that the rivers of living water Jesus was referring to was the the Holy Spirit flowing from the hearts of whoever (us) believes in him......
39 By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were later to receive. Up to that time the Spirit had not been given, since Jesus had not yet been glorified.

This is why we find in vs 40 and 41 the people were saying "Truly this must be the prophet." and Others were saying "This must be The Christ"...they understood the parable...they knew what Jesus was saying.I appreciate your response but it's not really making sense to me at this point. But I'll think about it some more to see if I can make sense of it.

guero
Jan 15th 2013, 10:31 PM
The ambiguity is in the punctuation the translators read into the Greek. John Chrysostom commented on this in the 4th century. There was no punctuation in the earliest manuscripts, so the translators either used later manuscripts with punctuation or inferred their own. The reading in the KJV is, as you cite:

He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.

which, as you point out, leads to the question, "What Scripture?"

The punctuation used by the Greek Fathers yields the reading:

He that believeth on me as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.

Theophylact paraphrases Chrysostom's commentary in the 10th century (in Greek) and writes:

"Because many people believed solely because of the miracles, the Lord states that one should believe because of the testimony of the Scriptures, not on account of miracles, and that right belief stems from knowledge of the Scriptures. This is why He says, 'He that believeth in Me as the Scripture hath said, that is, as the Scripture has testified concerning Me: that I am the Son of God, the Creator, the Lord of all, and Saviour of the world.' Many thought they believed, but they did so in accordance with their own opinions, not with Scripture. This is typical of heretics" (Explanation of the Holy Gospel According to John, English translation by Chrysostom Press, 2007).

Reading the text according to the Church Fathers removes the ambiguity.

LookingUp
Jan 15th 2013, 11:25 PM
I've been told that it's a conflation of several passages and that there's a terrific article on it, "The Origin of the Old Testament Quotation in John 7:38," by Maarten J. J. Menken (Novum Testamentum, Vol. 38, Fasc. 2 (Apr., 1996), pp. 160-175).

Watchman
Jan 16th 2013, 12:16 AM
Proverbs 18:4 is a possibility, too:

The words of a man's mouth are deep waters; the fountain of wisdom is a bubbling brook.

BroRog
Jan 16th 2013, 12:33 AM
Since John interpreted Jesus' statement about living water in terms of the outpouring of the Holy Spirit, one should look for OT references to the outpouring of the Holy Spirit.

Watchman
Jan 16th 2013, 02:32 PM
Joel would be a good start.

guero
Jan 16th 2013, 02:40 PM
Joel would be a good start.

I got on this thread late, but posted something on a subthread. The passage is probably not punctuated correctly in the translations. The early Greek-speaking Church read this passage as:

He that believeth on me as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water

and not:

He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water

When read in the first manner, it is clear that the Lord is referring to Himself and not some specific Scriptural passage about the flow of living water. For sure, though, this doesn't take away from the value of all the allusions.

Watchman
Jan 16th 2013, 07:27 PM
Since Greek isn't punctuated, we must guess where to put our English punctuation marks, yes?

John146
Jan 16th 2013, 08:40 PM
I got on this thread late, but posted something on a subthread. The passage is probably not punctuated correctly in the translations. The early Greek-speaking Church read this passage as:

He that believeth on me as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water

and not:

He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water

When read in the first manner, it is clear that the Lord is referring to Himself and not some specific Scriptural passage about the flow of living water. For sure, though, this doesn't take away from the value of all the allusions.I don't quite understand what you're trying to say. He was obviously referring to a a scripture that said something because it says "as the scripture hath said". Which scripture do you think He was referring to and what does it say?

guero
Jan 16th 2013, 10:50 PM
Since Greek isn't punctuated, we must guess where to put our English punctuation marks, yes?

Fortunately we do not have to guess.

We can look back at ancient Greek commentaries to see where the Greek commentators understood the pauses to be. The earliest commentary of this sort I can find is from John Chrysostom (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_Chrysostom), who wrote a large series of homilies on the Gospels according to Matthew and John in the late 300's. He specifically addresses this passage and how it should be read in Greek:

"But where has the Scripture said, that “rivers of living water shall flow from his belly”? Nowhere. What does it mean then, He that believes in Me, as the Scripture says? Here we must place a pause, such that rivers shall flow from his belly, is read as an assertion of Christ . For because many said, 'This is the Christ' and 'When the Christ comes will He do more miracles?' He shows that it proper to have correct knowledge, and to be convinced not so much from the miracles as from the Scriptures" ([I]Homily LI on the Gospel According to John)

As I pointed out in my other post, Theophylact (another Greek) summarized what John Chrysostom was getting at as follows:

"Because many people believed solely because of the miracles, the Lord states that one should believe because of the testimony of the Scriptures, not on account of miracles, and that right belief stems from knowledge of the Scriptures. This is why He says, 'He that believeth in Me as the Scripture hath said, that is, as the Scripture has testified concerning Me: that I am the Son of God, the Creator, the Lord of all, and Saviour of the world.' Many thought they believed, but they did so in accordance with their own opinions, not with Scripture. This is typical of heretics" ( Explanation of the Holy Gospel According to St. John, English translation by Chrysostom Press, 2007).

John 5:25-28 is another example of how a passage can be misread if it is not punctuated properly. The King James Version reads:

Verily, verily, I say unto you,
The hour is coming,
and now is,
when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God:
and they that hear shall live.
For as the Father hath life in himself;
so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;
And hath given him authority to execute judgment also,
because he is the Son of man.
Marvel not at this:
for the hour is coming,
in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice

This is actually a potentially heretical reading, in that it can be read that it implies that Christ had to be given authority by God to judge because He was the Son of man (and not the Son of God). This was a heresy promulgated by Paul of Samosata in the mid-3rd century, refuted by a local synod in Antioch. The proper reading, as supported in the Patristic record, is:

Verily, verily, I say unto you,
The hour is coming,
and now is,
when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God:
and they that hear shall live.
For as the Father hath life in himself,
so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself,
And hath given him authority to execute judgment also.
That he is the Son of man
Marvel not at this:
for the hour is coming,
in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice

In other words, Marvel not that He is also Son of Man.

The ambiguity in punctuation comes from how the (Greek) reader interprets the conjunction ὅτι which can be interpreted as because as well as that.

guero
Jan 16th 2013, 11:13 PM
I don't quite understand what you're trying to say. He was obviously referring to a a scripture that said something because it says "as the scripture hath said". Which scripture do you think He was referring to and what does it say?

Per my earlier comment, He is not referring to a particular Scripture that says out of his belly show flow rivers of water, but rather what Scripture says in general about Himself. The Greek commentators interpreting this passage comment that the Lord was admonishing people not to just believe in Him because of miracles, but to base their belief in all that Scripture had prophesied about Him.

I think even if one were skeptical of the ancient Greek Church' interpretation of the passage, it is inconceivable that the Lord would err in citing a passage of Scripture, do you agree?

ret7army
Mar 18th 2015, 06:10 PM
When Jesus said, "He that believeth on me, as the scriptures hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water" (John 7:38 KJV)

I believe that we need to look in the Old Testament for our references. Note: source material from Biblegateway dot com and their links to commentaries can help in this regard.

I'm working on a sermon based on Jesus' encounter with the Samaritan woman at the well - John 4, that led me to John 7:38 and this discussion.
There are 3 things in this passage that have bearing
1. "He that believes on me (Jesus)..."
2. "as the scripture has said..."
3. "out of his belly (innermost being) shall flow rivers of living water"

A keyword search on "Living Water" in Biblegateway had many results including these which seem to have bearing on this question:

Leviticus 14:6, 51, 52 the symbolism of the sacrifice over running water - I'm considering that but haven't decided one way or the other yet.
Song of Solomon 4:15
Jeremiah 2:13 & 7:13 which give the first clear reference between God and Living Water
Jeremiah 2:13 - For my people have committed two evils; they have forsaken me the fountain of living waters, and hewed them out cisterns, broken cisterns, that can hold no water.
Jeremiah 7:13 - O*Lord, the hope of Israel, all that forsake thee shall be ashamed, and they that depart from me shall be written in the earth, because they have forsaken the*Lord, the fountain of living waters.

Bible Hub provided those and also some additional references:
Isaiah 12:3 - Therefore with joy shall ye draw water out of the wells of salvation.
Isaiah 35:6 - Then shall the lame man leap as an hart, and the tongue of the dumb sing: for in the wilderness shall waters break out, and streams in the desert.
Isaiah 44:3 - For I will pour water upon him that is thirsty, and floods upon the dry ground: I will pour my spirit upon thy seed, and my blessing upon thine offspring:
Isaiah 55:1 - Ho, every one that thirsteth, come ye to the waters, and he that hath no money; come ye, buy, and eat; yea, come, buy wine and milk without money and without price.
Isaiah 58:11 - And the LORD shall guide thee continually, and satisfy thy soul in drought, and make fat thy bones: and thou shalt be like a watered garden, and like a spring of water, whose waters fail not

Zechariah 14:8 - as mentioned elsewhere in this thread is another good reference.

Another source is John Gill's Exposition of the Bible ... one source for that being: http://www.biblestudytools.com/commentaries/gills-exposition-of-the-bible/john-7-38.html and there are others as well.

May your studies be blessed

Michael Denic
May 19th 2015, 10:34 AM
this scripture is better understood this way, so its saying when you believe in jesus the way the scriptures talk about believing in him, THEN rivers of living water will flow within you. also the rivers are spiritual and they are literal, i have seen them within myself, when you worship or pray, or various other acts by you or other people you get filled with the living water, its blue in colour, and when you feel it if you were feeling a lack of peace, you then feel peaceful afterwards, most believers dont experience it the way im talking because there inner eyes or spiritual senses haven't been opened to be aware of the spiritual realm. they are literal waters not symbolic. also when they flow in to your heart words and revelation from God flow in the water sometimes. to be filled with the living water it can be as simple as saying to jesus, 'jesus fill me with your living water" or you can worship or pray or be thankful there are other ways but those are the most common.