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Equipped_4_Love
Dec 27th 2008, 09:13 AM
And demons also came out of many, crying out and saying "You are the Christ, the Son of God." And He, rebuking them, did not allow them to speak, for they knew that He was the Christ

I have some questions about this passage, and I'm hoping that someone could shed some light:

(1) Can someone please explain the implication behind the word rebuke here....was this merely indicative of Christ casting them out, or did He actually curse them in some other way?

(2) The verse says that Jesus did not allow them to speak. Does this mean that He merely ordered them not to speak (took away their permission to speak), or did He actually make them mute, so that they could not speak?

If Christ orders the demons not to speak, why is it that in so many exorcisms, the people performing the exorcism command the demons to speak, and identify themselves? The verse says that Jesus ordered them not to speak because they knew that he was the Christ.

Thanks for your answers in advance.

neverleaveunorfors
Dec 27th 2008, 09:27 AM
And demons also came out of many, crying out and saying "You are the Christ, the Son of God." And He, rebuking them, did not allow them to speak, for they knew that He was the Christ

I have some questions about this passage, and I'm hoping that someone could shed some light:

(1) Can someone please explain the implication behind the word rebuke here....was this merely indicative of Christ casting them out, or did He actually curse them in some other way?

(2) The verse says that Jesus did not allow them to speak. Does this mean that He merely ordered them not to speak (took away their permission to speak), or did He actually make them mute, so that they could not speak?

If Christ orders the demons not to speak, why is it that in so many exorcisms, the people performing the exorcism command the demons to speak, and identify themselves? The verse says that Jesus ordered them not to speak because they knew that he was the Christ.

Thanks for your answers in advance.
Christ told more than just the demons not to speak of who he was or what vision they had of him but most did, that he was the son of God or the Christ or witness to his transfiguration or even Moses and Elijah appearing to him :pp

BroRog
Dec 27th 2008, 05:29 PM
And demons also came out of many, crying out and saying "You are the Christ, the Son of God." And He, rebuking them, did not allow them to speak, for they knew that He was the Christ

I have some questions about this passage, and I'm hoping that someone could shed some light:

(1) Can someone please explain the implication behind the word rebuke here....was this merely indicative of Christ casting them out, or did He actually curse them in some other way?

(2) The verse says that Jesus did not allow them to speak. Does this mean that He merely ordered them not to speak (took away their permission to speak), or did He actually make them mute, so that they could not speak?

If Christ orders the demons not to speak, why is it that in so many exorcisms, the people performing the exorcism command the demons to speak, and identify themselves? The verse says that Jesus ordered them not to speak because they knew that he was the Christ.

Thanks for your answers in advance.

The term "rebuke" in this instance simply means that Jesus "sharply charged" the demons not to speak. That is, his command to be silent about his being the Christ carried the weight of someone in charge. The demons knew that Jesus was the Christ, which is to say, Jesus was the King. And as the sovereign over all creation, he had the power and authority to enforce his commands, even over the demons.

The rebuke was not a curse, but a very strong command.

I don't think Jesus muted the demons, although this could be a possibility. When someone in power commands something to be done, those subject to him will either obey without force, or the sovereign will enforce obedience. We can suppose that the demons simply kept their mouth shut, if they knew what was good for them, or if need be, Jesus closed their mouths for them.

Either way, the demons knew that Jesus was the king and attempted to make this known among the people before Jesus was ready to reveal this fact himself. Jesus did NOT want the crowds to know that he was the king, especially later in his ministry, when they threatened to make him king. Jesus knew that he must suffer and die for the people first. And just as important, he wanted each individual to come to terms with his role as king, and not be swept up in the excitement of the moment.

crossnote
Dec 28th 2008, 07:17 AM
The term "rebuke" in this instance simply means that Jesus "sharply charged" the demons not to speak. That is, his command to be silent about his being the Christ carried the weight of someone in charge. The demons knew that Jesus was the Christ, which is to say, Jesus was the King. And as the sovereign over all creation, he had the power and authority to enforce his commands, even over the demons.

The rebuke was not a curse, but a very strong command.

I don't think Jesus muted the demons, although this could be a possibility. When someone in power commands something to be done, those subject to him will either obey without force, or the sovereign will enforce obedience. We can suppose that the demons simply kept their mouth shut, if they knew what was good for them, or if need be, Jesus closed their mouths for them.

Either way, the demons knew that Jesus was the king and attempted to make this known among the people before Jesus was ready to reveal this fact himself. Jesus did NOT want the crowds to know that he was the king, especially later in his ministry, when they threatened to make him king. Jesus knew that he must suffer and die for the people first. And just as important, he wanted each individual to come to terms with his role as king, and not be swept up in the excitement of the moment.

To add to BroRog's comment, I would say the demons, if left to speak, would not only begin taking the glory for giving out the news but would immediately start twisting the news...kinda like he did in the garden.

Equipped_4_Love
Dec 29th 2008, 05:23 PM
Thank you for those responses.

Very helpful.

Emanate
Dec 29th 2008, 07:13 PM
If Christ orders the demons not to speak, why is it that in so many exorcisms, the people performing the exorcism command the demons to speak, and identify themselves? The verse says that Jesus ordered them not to speak because they knew that he was the Christ.


In a word - sensationalism

Teke
Dec 30th 2008, 01:49 AM
And demons also came out of many, crying out and saying "You are the Christ, the Son of God." And He, rebuking them, did not allow them to speak, for they knew that He was the Christ

I have some questions about this passage, and I'm hoping that someone could shed some light:

(1) Can someone please explain the implication behind the word rebuke here....was this merely indicative of Christ casting them out, or did He actually curse them in some other way?

(2) The verse says that Jesus did not allow them to speak. Does this mean that He merely ordered them not to speak (took away their permission to speak), or did He actually make them mute, so that they could not speak?

If Christ orders the demons not to speak, why is it that in so many exorcisms, the people performing the exorcism command the demons to speak, and identify themselves? The verse says that Jesus ordered them not to speak because they knew that he was the Christ.

Thanks for your answers in advance.

It's not a rule of thumb to not let them speak, or ask them not to.

Luk 8:30 And Jesus asked him, saying, What is thy name? And he said, Legion: because many devils were entered into him.

Apparently He did ask some their name.

kenrank
Dec 30th 2008, 07:39 AM
And demons also came out of many, crying out and saying "You are the Christ, the Son of God." And He, rebuking them, did not allow them to speak, for they knew that He was the Christ

I have some questions about this passage, and I'm hoping that someone could shed some light:

(1) Can someone please explain the implication behind the word rebuke here....was this merely indicative of Christ casting them out, or did He actually curse them in some other way?

The Greek word, by implication, can mean admonish or forbid just as it can rebuke.


(2) The verse says that Jesus did not allow them to speak. Does this mean that He merely ordered them not to speak (took away their permission to speak), or did He actually make them mute, so that they could not speak?

The Greek eaō doesn't seem to be a "command" as much as he kept them from speaking. More like he pinched their lips shut. I think, as we see in other examples, that he didn't want anyone running around at that time, saying he was the Messiah. He repeated a need for us to believe based not on other's word, but his works. Just as we are known not by our words, but by our fruits.

Peace.
Ken