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davidharding
Mar 25th 2009, 06:20 AM
i heard that in the law that when 2 are caught in adultery that they are to be bound together and stoned.

if they caught them in the act of adultery, why didn't they bring the man she engaged in adultery with?

i heard if they had brought the man with her then Christ would have been obligated by the law to have them bound and stoned. however, since they only brought her, Christ could forgive her because they didn't bring the man too.

maybe they let the man go because he was a priest or one of the priests sons.

has anyone heard anything similar or can share anything on this?

crossnote
Mar 25th 2009, 06:29 AM
i heard that in the law that when 2 are caught in adultery that they are to be bound together and stoned.

if they caught them in the act of adultery, why didn't they bring the man she engaged in adultery with?

i heard if they had brought the man with her then Christ would have been obligated by the law to have them bound and stoned. however, since they only brought her, Christ could forgive her because they didn't bring the man too.

maybe they let the man go because he was a priest or one of the priests sons.

has anyone heard anything similar or can share anything on this?

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him.
(Joh 3:17)

Had not Christ come to be a sin bearer He would have had to pronounce judgement on her whether or not the other party was in attendance.
Don't worry His role as Judge is coming and woe to those who have refused to find Him as their City of Refuge..

Joyfulee
Mar 25th 2009, 06:53 AM
i heard that in the law that when 2 are caught in adultery that they are to be bound together and stoned.

if they caught them in the act of adultery, why didn't they bring the man she engaged in adultery with?

i heard if they had brought the man with her then Christ would have been obligated by the law to have them bound and stoned. however, since they only brought her, Christ could forgive her because they didn't bring the man too.

maybe they let the man go because he was a priest or one of the priests sons.

has anyone heard anything similar or can share anything on this?

Follow Jesus. Not man.

Blessings

Zack702
Mar 25th 2009, 07:22 AM
I think the real reason is the capital punishment wasn't meant to be executed by just anyone. Certainly not by a angry mob who think they might be justified but aren't sure. It is best to let well educated and well trustworthy people to decide it over long discussions and reviews of evidence. But in that time things were a bit out of control and a honest trial was hard to come by. For all they knew at that point that woman was tricked into that situation.

Also the fact that Jesus came to save us comes into play here. Sometimes in prophecy sinners no matter what there sin is are described as adulterers. And if your looking for the spiritual meaning of the passage the technical details don't really mean much. It is best to forgive as much as is in us to do so because we know we are in this together.

keck553
Mar 25th 2009, 04:07 PM
First of all, the crowd profaned Torah commands by their actions, and even with the Author of Torah right in front of them.

Secondly He forgave the 'harlot' for the same reason He forgave me

THOM
Mar 25th 2009, 05:53 PM
i heard that in the law that when 2 are caught in adultery that they are to be bound together and stoned.
if they caught them in the act of adultery, why didn't they bring the man she engaged in adultery with?

David this has got to be one of my all-time favorite passages, and you'll see why; just keep reading.

When JESUS CHRIST did HIS (now famous "Sermon on the Mount"), HE come to the part of the Teaching where HE prefaces, each explanation about "the Law of Moses", by stating, "You have heard. . .". JESUS is implying that certain things that people had “heard” was nothing more than hearsay. This is not the case here. . .but it happens so often within the household of Faith, that its always worth pointing out.

Yes they were both to be stoned. And because the text of that passage states, "They say unto him, Master, this woman was taken in adultery, in the very act. (John 8:3)". Now, unless the man keeled over dead (from sheer pleasure of the sex act, and/or sheer shock from getting caught committing adultery) where was he?


i heard if they had brought the man with her then Christ would have been obligated by the law to have them bound and stoned. however, since they only brought her, Christ could forgive her because they didn't bring the man too.
maybe they let the man go because he was a priest or one of the priests sons.
has anyone heard anything similar or can share anything on this?

When JESUS ignores them as to what the Law of Moses states, and what ought to be done to the woman, HE, no doubt, was thinking, that part of the Law stated that you couldn't stone somebody for a sin that you yourself had committed.

But here's where it really gets GOOD, and JESUS CHRIST shows HIS Brilliance as only HE CAN/COULD.

"So when they continued asking him, HE lifted up himself, and said unto them, He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her. And again HE stooped down, and wrote on the ground. And they which heard it, being convicted by their own conscience, went out one by one, beginning at the eldest, even unto the last: and JESUS was left alone, and the woman standing in the midst. When JESUS had lifted up HIMSELF, and saw none but the woman, HE said unto her, Woman, where are those thine accusers? hath no man condemned thee? She said, No man, Lord. And JESUS said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more."

Question: How do you, JESUS CHRIST, tell a sinner, to "go, and sin no more"? JESUS has got to know that sinners sin because they're sinner; this woman is a harlot; this woman has been caught in the very act of harlot-ing (sinning). So how can JESUS possibly telling her to "go, and sin no more"?

The answer is in the woman's reply to JESUS' question to her, "hath no man condemned thee?"; and this former harlot, this former sinner, replies very simply, "No man, Lord".

See, sin is no longer her master; now JESUS CHRIST IS "Lord"! Sin and Harlotry no longer calls the shots in her life; now JESUS CHRIST does, because she has made HIM her "Lord". So if JESUS CHRIST tells you to "go, and sin no more"; you can do it, provided HE has now become your "Lord"!

As a footnote, Everywhere in the four Gospel accounts, whenever anyone requested of and/or acknowledged JESUS CHRIST as "LORD", HE saved them and/or granted their request.

HisLeast
Mar 25th 2009, 06:10 PM
I've been hearing a ton of textual criticisms that say the story was added much later. So my first question would be DID Jesus forgive the Harlot?

:confused

Reynolds357
Mar 25th 2009, 06:23 PM
i heard that in the law that when 2 are caught in adultery that they are to be bound together and stoned.

if they caught them in the act of adultery, why didn't they bring the man she engaged in adultery with?

i heard if they had brought the man with her then Christ would have been obligated by the law to have them bound and stoned. however, since they only brought her, Christ could forgive her because they didn't bring the man too.

maybe they let the man go because he was a priest or one of the priests sons.

has anyone heard anything similar or can share anything on this?

He did not say, do not stone her. He said, "he who is without sin cast the first stone." Huge difference.

PastorMike
Mar 25th 2009, 06:32 PM
First of all the Law was given to demand righteousness.
Christ came to fulfill righteousness.
No one was ever made righteous by the law.
They brought the woman merely tempting Christ, that they might have something to accuse Him of before the people as clearly stated in verse six of John eight.
The Pharisees knew how to use and to abuse the Law. Here their intention was to abuse the law in order to accuse Christ.
Certainly He forgave her. He said, "Neither do I condemn thee..."
I believe the real lesson here was in the finger of God, when Christ bowed and wrote on the ground with His finger.
The finger of God wrote three times:
1st The law in stone because the law is eternal.
2nd Judgment on a wall because judgment was about to fall.
3rd Grace in the dust because that is where he took us from.
The reason Christ forgave the woman taken in adultery was as stated in John 3:17, "For God sent not His Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through Him might be saved."

keck553
Mar 25th 2009, 07:06 PM
When JESUS ignores them as to what the Law of Moses states, and what ought to be done to the woman, HE, no doubt, was thinking, that part of the Law stated that you couldn't stone somebody for a sin that you yourself had committed.

But here's where it really gets GOOD, and JESUS CHRIST shows HIS Brilliance as only HE CAN/COULD.

"So when they continued asking him, HE lifted up himself, and said unto them, He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her. .

Actually, He was using their own Oral Torah and traditions against them, for their own halacah states the witnesses must be thorougly investigated for righteousness. Obviously none of them were; He could read thier minds, so He knew. He merely slapped them in the face with their own self-righteousness and man-made additions to His Law.

webers_home
Mar 25th 2009, 07:09 PM
.
In the Hebrew theocratic culture, adultery is a felony crime punishable by death.

†.Lev 20:10 . .And the man that commits adultery with another man's wife, even he that commits adultery with his neighbor's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.

However, no one can be put to death sans the testimony of at least two witnesses; and the witnesses themselves must be the first to lift a hand against the accused.

†.Deut 17:6-7 . .At the mouth of two witnesses, or three witnesses, shall he that is worthy of death be put to death; but at the mouth of one witness he shall not be put to death. The hands of the witnesses shall be first upon him to put him to death, and afterward the hands of all the people. So thou shalt put the evil away from among you.

Jesus was born in the jurisdiction of the Hebrew theocratic culture; and was, by virtue of his genetics, and his ritual circumcision, obligated to comply with every last jot and tittle of Moses' covenanted law.

†.Gal 4:4 . .But when the time had fully come, God sent His son . . born under the law

†.Gal 5:2-3 . .Again I declare to every man who lets himself be circumcised that he is obligated to obey the whole law.

It's not that Jesus "forgave" the adulteress. No, the weightier matter is that he himself was not a valid witness to her crime. When the others walked out, it was an automatic "case dismissed" for lack of evidence since there was no one left to testify against her.

Had Jesus ignored Moses' covenanted law, and proceeded to press charges against the adulteress on the basis of hearsay, he would have subjected himself to a curse.

†.Deut 27:26 . .Cursed is the man who does not uphold the words of this Law by carrying them out.

This incident in John 8 is very handy for pointing out that the Bible's Christ is fair; and not swayed by gender bias.

†.Ps 45:6 . .Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever; a scepter of equity will be the scepter of your kingdom.

Webster's defines equity as: free from bias or favoritism

A pretty good off-the-cuff definition of justice is: the application of law without passion or prejudice.

BTW: What did Jesus write in the dirt? (chuckle) Well, I think it's pretty certain to be the names of girlfriends that the woman's accusers thought nobody knew anything about :-)

C.L.I.F.F.
_______________________________________

keck553
Mar 25th 2009, 07:17 PM
You're correct of course. Had He broken just one Torah command (that He gave to Moses in the first place), He would have been a sinner.

About the dirt. If you're wondering what He wrote:

(Jer 17:13) Hope of Isra'el, Adonai! All who abandon you will be ashamed, those who leave you will be inscribed in the dust, because they have abandoned Adonai, the source of living water.

Typically, a teacher of that era used a slab covered with dust to teach, or simply used the ground. He wrote the lesson in the dust, then bledw it off into the wind, or wiped it off on the ground. Either way, the content is erased. This is probably how Yeshua was teaching these people during this incident. I think they knew what He was doing, as they knew Scripture as well as anyone. Whoever they thought Yeshua was, it probably gave the a tingle or two up thier spines. Bottom line, you don't want God writing your name in the dirt.

daughter
Mar 25th 2009, 09:38 PM
In answer to the original question... why did He forgive me?

He forgave her for the same reason He forgives anyone. So... why do people think He forgives any sinner?