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noneedtoknow
Jul 26th 2009, 09:59 PM
Exodus 21:7-11
And if a man sells his daughter to be a female slave, she shall not go out as the male slaves do. If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself, he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her. If he selects her for his son, he must grant her the rights of a daughter. If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights. If he does not provide her with these three things, she is to go free, without any payment of money.

daughter
Jul 26th 2009, 10:25 PM
To the OP... I hope the following explanation helps.

In the time that this was written, the word that we translate as "slave" did not mean slave in its modern sense. For example, under Jewish law, servants (a better translation) had one day off a week, were supposed to eat as well as the family they worked for, and were released from their work obligation after six years.

So it is more like a description of indentured servanthood than modern slavery.

Does that help?