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dworthington
Apr 30th 2010, 10:02 AM
Is it possible that some one with no interest in their oppisite gender mistake their no intersest as being "gay"?

Firstfruits
Apr 30th 2010, 12:25 PM
Is it possible that some one with no interest in their oppisite gender mistake their no intersest as being "gay"?

With regards to the following it depends on what Jesus meant.

The oldest available version of Matthew is a translation probably from Aramaic or Hebrew into Greek, and the word used in the Greek translation is eunouchos, from which we get our word eunuch. The word eunouchos comes from eune (bed) and echein (to hold), and most scholars accept that it means "one who guards the bed." But Jesus would not have used the Greek word, since he spoke Aramaic. The Hebrew and Aramaic word for eunuch is saris, an Assyrian loan word that has been interpreted to mean "at the head." an ancient Syriac translation of the Bible used the word mu'omin for eunouchos and saris. Mu'omin means "person of faith" or "person of trust."

Firstfruits