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doug3
Jan 25th 2011, 09:08 PM
“34 ¶ Then Peter opened [his] mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons: 35 But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.” (Ac 10:34-35 AV-KJV)

“34 ¶ Then Peter began to speak. "I clearly see," he said, "that God makes no distinctions between one man and another; 35 but that in every nation those who fear Him and live good lives are acceptable to Him.” (Ac 10:34-35 Weymouth NT)


If there is no respect of persons with God why do many believe and teach that that God's chosen elect (e.g. Mrk 13:20; Col 3:12) means only those that will at some point in their lives come to believe the Gospel through the work of the Holy Spirit and be saved. All others are already condemned and cannot believe because God has not ordained that they should. This means to me that God chooses between humans: God decides who will receive the ability to believe in Jesus Christ and who will not.

To put it bluntly God decided from before the creation who will live with Him eternally in heaven and who will go to hell to suffer eternal torment (according to the most common understanding of Scripture).

That is showing respect of persons to my understanding. It is showing partiality.

Comments?

Equipped_4_Love
Jan 25th 2011, 09:25 PM
Hi, doug;

I believe what this verse is referring to is that God does not make a distiction between Jew and Gentile any longer. Notice verse 35: but in every nation that feareth Him...... Clearly he is talking about nationality here.

Servant89
Jan 25th 2011, 11:24 PM
“34 ¶ Then Peter opened [his] mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons: 35 But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.” (Ac 10:34-35 AV-KJV)

“34 ¶ Then Peter began to speak. "I clearly see," he said, "that God makes no distinctions between one man and another; 35 but that in every nation those who fear Him and live good lives are acceptable to Him.” (Ac 10:34-35 Weymouth NT)


If there is no respect of persons with God why do many believe and teach that that God's chosen elect (e.g. Mrk 13:20; Col 3:12) means only those that will at some point in their lives come to believe the Gospel through the work of the Holy Spirit and be saved. All others are already condemned and cannot believe because God has not ordained that they should. This means to me that God chooses between humans: God decides who will receive the ability to believe in Jesus Christ and who will not.

To put it bluntly God decided from before the creation who will live with Him eternally in heaven and who will go to hell to suffer eternal torment (according to the most common understanding of Scripture).

That is showing respect of persons to my understanding. It is showing partiality.

Comments?

The only way one can conclude that (in spite of what the book of Acts says) is by either:

1. Believing the book of Acts is NOT inspired by God.
2. Believing God lied.
3. Believing God is impartial, meaning you do not think he is perfect.
4. Believing you can do a better job at being God than God himself.
5. Believing you are so smart, you can actually find fault with God or with his WORD.
6. Or something else.

Which is it?

Prov 3:5 says trust in the Lord with all you heart and lean not in your own understanding.

Shalom

Servant89
Jan 25th 2011, 11:37 PM
God choses, he elects, whom he wills, but he is not a respector of persons. Let me give you some examples of what that means...

Mat 27:38-44 states that the two robbers that were crucified with Jesus, both mocked him and made fun of him while on the cross. Yet, when one of them showed that he believed he was the Christ, God did not take the previous insults into consideration, but quickly saved him.

Mat 27:38 Then were there two thieves crucified with him, one on the right hand, and another on the left.
39 And they that passed by reviled him, wagging their heads,
40 And saying, Thou that destroyest the temple, and buildest it in three days, save thyself. If thou be the Son of God, come down from the cross.
41 Likewise also the chief priests mocking him, with the scribes and elders, said,
42 He saved others; himself he cannot save. If he be the King of Israel, let him now come down from the cross, and we will believe him.
43 He trusted in God; let him deliver him now, if he will have him: for he said, I am the Son of God.
44 The thieves also, which were crucified with him, cast the same in his teeth.

The book of Johan explains that when Niniveh repented, God swallowed up his own words and saved them.

Jon 3:10 And God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way; and God repented of the evil, that he had said that he would do unto them; and he did it not.

God told Joshua to destroy 7 kings in Canaan. One king got saved and his people by showing faith (read Joshua 9).

God's salvation is for everyone without having any filters. But that salvation is free to those that believe.

You are saying that faith is the result of God and we have nothing to do with it. And when you do that, you are back to the days of Adam and Eve.

Adam... what happened? Lord the woman that you gave me!!!! She got me in trouble, it is all her fault, and your fault.

Eve,... what happened? Lord, the serpent deceived me, it lied to me and I thought it was telling the truth.

Since the beginning, we have been blaming God for everything. It is never our fault.

My advice? Stop it. Be accountable.

Shalom

doug3
Jan 26th 2011, 07:16 PM
Servant: Stop what?.....15 characters

doug3
Jan 26th 2011, 07:21 PM
Servant89: "You are saying that faith is the result of God and we have nothing to do with it. And when you do that, you are back to the days of Adam and Eve."

Huh?

Others are. That was my point. I guess I should have said why do Reformed/Calvinist people teach that God chooses some for salvation and others for hell?

(Though of course they will deny it)

I was trying to ask that without stirring up an argument about isms.

I too believe salvation is available to all and that our "choice" has much to do with it and that I am accountable to God for mine.

doug3
Jan 26th 2011, 07:26 PM
Equipped: So salvation is only available to some? That is to some Jews and to some Gentiles?

notuptome
Jan 26th 2011, 08:38 PM
God is God. God knows the end from before the begining. God is soverign. God can do all the He pleases and how He pleases. God could if He desired compel a man to believe. God chooses to allow a man to decide for himself. God because He knows how the man will decide if often accused of causing the man to decide. If God were man this could be true but God is God.

God has determined that those who trust in Christ will be saved and He will bless them. God knows who will trust in Christ and who will not. God does not make a man choose to receive or to reject only that man must decide one way or the other. Because Adam received the knowledge of good and evil in the garden the responsibility for deciding is passed to every man.

Salvation is available to all but some will not receive it. John 3:16-21

For the cause of Christ
Roger

Servant89
Jan 26th 2011, 10:21 PM
Servant: Stop what?.....15 characters

I guess I missunderstood this..

<That is showing respect of persons to my understanding. It is showing partiality.>>

I did not know where you were coming from, my bad.

Shalom

Servant89
Jan 26th 2011, 10:22 PM
Servant89: "You are saying that faith is the result of God and we have nothing to do with it. And when you do that, you are back to the days of Adam and Eve."

Huh?

Others are. That was my point. I guess I should have said why do Reformed/Calvinist people teach that God chooses some for salvation and others for hell?

(Though of course they will deny it)

I was trying to ask that without stirring up an argument about isms.

I too believe salvation is available to all and that our "choice" has much to do with it and that I am accountable to God for mine.

I stand corrected, I read your message wrong. My apologies.

Shalom

doug3
Jan 27th 2011, 03:13 AM
I stand corrected, I read your message wrong. My apologies.

Shalom

No problem. I did not write my post well.

derekd
Jan 27th 2011, 04:34 PM
King David was "the apple of God's eye" clearly that was a distinction? I believe God esteems the upright.

John146
Jan 27th 2011, 05:16 PM
King David was "the apple of God's eye" clearly that was a distinction? I believe God esteems the upright.He does but that isn't what Him being impartial means. It means He is impartial in His judgments. He is fair, in other words. If two people have the same capabilities then God will judge both by the same standard without favoring one over the other because of status, appearance, nationality, wealth or anything like that.

1 Peter 1:17 And if ye call on the Father, who without respect of persons judgeth according to every man's work, pass the time of your sojourning here in fear: