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DurbanDude
May 1st 2007, 05:52 PM
Many believe the resurrection will occur when Jesus comes again in glory. Jesus himself says in Matthew 25: 31-46 that when he comes there will be eternal judgement on the unrighteous, indicating that the day of the resurrection and the day of judgement are the same day.

Yet Revelation 20 indicates that the first resurrection occurs 1000 years before the day of judgement for the unrighteous.

Could somebody explain this please?

I wont be involved in this thread and haven't got any answers myself , just want to read the various viewpoints (please short posts)

wpm
May 1st 2007, 05:56 PM
Many believe the resurrection will occur when Jesus comes again in glory. Jesus himself says in Matthew 25: 31-46 that when he comes there will be eternal judgement on the unrighteous, indicating that the day of the resurrection and the day of judgement are the same day.

Yet Revelation 20 indicates that the first resurrection occurs 1000 years before the day of judgement for the unrighteous.

Could somebody explain this please?

I wont be involved in this thread and haven't got any answers myself , just want to read the various viewpoints (please short posts)

I believe Jesus is the first resurrection. We experience Him upon salvation. In conversion we identify with Him, we have our part in Him. Revelation 20:6 simply says, “Blessed and holy is he ‘that hath part’ (or) echo méros in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power.”

Christ physically conquered the grave. He was “the first resurrection” to secure that. He was the first to be glorified and enter into heaven. He did this all on our behalf. That is why this passage says that we now have our portion in this first resurrection. That is what happens on salvation, we are identified with His death, burial and resurrection. In fact, all that have their part in salvation are delivered from eternal punishment (the second death). This is the only resurrection that spares all the redeemed the horrors of the Lake of Fire. The new birth experience is continually depicted as the means by which one escapes eternal punishment, why would this passage teach anything different. Christ doesn’t present the physical resurrection as our confidence of escaping eternal punishment, but salvation. Moreover, our participation in this hope is active and ongoing, not merely a future hope at His Coming.

Paul

third hero
May 1st 2007, 06:49 PM
To understand what Christ does in Matthew 25:31-46, one must understand the reasons why Christ has to come back to earth. God made a promise to David 3000 years ago. That promise is that God will set up His Son, who will be a "son" of David, who will rule the entire world from Jerusalem. (Psalm 2, 2 Samuel 7). The Jews believed that when the Christ first came, that He would fulfill that promise, and bring Israel to prominence. This is why many of them rebelled against Rome at that time, because everyone was expecting the Messiah to come. It is also the reason why Herod wanted to have him killed before he reached maturity. (Matthew 2).

How did they come to this conclusion? They looked at the prophecy of Daniel (Dan 9:24-27), and figured out that the point in which they were in would fulfill the 62 weeks portion of that prophecy. Therefore, because they have been taught that the Christ would rule the world, they thought that He would do that then, when He went to Jerusalem. However, they did not figure on the Lord actually having to die, just as Daniel foretold in verse 25. Now, just as David foretold, the future King of the World would not suffer to stay in the sheol forever (acts 2). And true to form, Christ rose from the dead. When this happened, His own disciples thought that He would rule the world from that point onward. However, that was not the case, as Christ Himself told the Disciples to not wonder about the time in which God will appoint Him to restore the Kingdom, which was the kingdom of Israel, to fulfill the promise that God originally made to David, (Acts 1:8).

Now understand this. Jesus has to return to the earth for one reason. He has to fulfill the promise that God gave to David. He is the only one who can. He is the one who was born of David's seed, however being the true and only begotten Son of God, He alone qualifies as the person who can restore the kingdom of Israel, and rule the entire world from Jerusalem. Therefore, He will return to establish His throne and His Kingdom. This is why in Matthew 25:31, the wording is as follows:

When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory, And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth [his] sheep from the goats:

You see, when CHrist comes, what we call the return of the Lord, He will gather the nations to Himself, and will sit on His throne. Now I know that many read the term, sit on the throne of His glory and think the Great White Throne. However, Daniel makes a reference to the Lord, otherwise known as the Son of man, coming in clouds of heaven, having been given authority over all of the nations of the world, and great glory to go with it. (Daniel 7:13-14). He will sit on His glorious throne in Jerusalem, and judge the nations, separating them. The ones that He deems worthy to stay on earth will stay, and those that He deems vile will be executed. The surviving nations will have to serve Him until the end of the earth. (Zechariah 14:9-21).

Now that I am on that subject, look at Daniel 7. Especially verses 13-14, 22, and 27. You see that the saints are judged by the Father, and also the kingdom of the beast and the Little Horn is judged by the Father. The Father gives judgment to the saints and then they go to the earth to take it as a posession. In Revelation 20, there are those being judged, and judgment was given to them, as well as thrones. These are those who have been beheaded by the beast, which in Daniel 7, was the little horn who said blasphemies against God, who attacked the saints and murdered them. These saints have been given favor, and were resurrected and judged to rule the nations with Christ when He rules the entire world.

According to Revelation 20, the rest of the dead, meaning the righteous and the wicked, do not get resurrected until after the earth is being destroyed. This is the last Day, and after that, the eareth, heaven and the old order dies, or get's hurled into the Lake of Fire. So you see, At Christ return, He takes over the earth. His Judgment is in favor of the saints who died by beheading for the sake of refusing to bow to the beast, or take his mark. This is why there are two resurrections, and two judgment days. One for the survivors of His return, and the other for all mankind.

I hope this helps a little.

Romulus
May 1st 2007, 07:12 PM
I believe Jesus is the first resurrection. We experience Him upon salvation. In conversion we identify with Him, we have our part in Him. Revelation 20:6 simply says, “Blessed and holy is he ‘that hath part’ (or) echo méros in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power.”

Christ physically conquered the grave. He was “the first resurrection” to secure that. He was the first to be glorified and enter into heaven. He did this all on our behalf. That is why this passage says that we now have our portion in this first resurrection. That is what happens on salvation, we are identified with His death, burial and resurrection. In fact, all that have their part in salvation are delivered from eternal punishment (the second death). This is the only resurrection that spares all the redeemed the horrors of the Lake of Fire. The new birth experience is continually depicted as the means by which one escapes eternal punishment, why would this passage teach anything different. Christ doesn’t present the physical resurrection as our confidence of escaping eternal punishment, but salvation. Moreover, our participation in this hope is active and ongoing, not merely a future hope at His Coming.

Paul

I would definately agree it is with Christ but I will expand on that a little more. The scripture about the first resurrection is below:

Revelation 20

4I saw thrones on which were seated those who had been given authority to judge. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony for Jesus and because of the word of God. They had not worshiped the beast or his image and had not received his mark on their foreheads or their hands. They came to life and reigned with Christ a thousand years. 5(The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.) This is the first resurrection. 6Blessed and holy are those who have part in the first resurrection. The second death has no power over them, but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years.

To really understand the First Resurrection we must first understand that this is reviving or bringing back to life something dead. Just like our Lord, was resurrected on the third day. If we have a "First Resurrection" we must also have a "First Death". Well according to the scripture we have a "Second Death" which has no power over those who partake in the First Resurrection. This we know if we go further is the Lake of Fire.

Revelation 20

14Then death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. The lake of fire is the second death. 15If anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire.

Revelation does not speak of the "First Death" so we either make the assumption by ourselves or scripture. Most would say that the "First Death" is a physical death when we die. I have heard many pastors teach this argument but not much scriptural basis for this idea, although in their defense would be a natural assumption. I believe for the answer we must go the natural assumption from the term "First Death" is obviously the first death in scripture. For this we must go to back to the Book of Genesis and Adam and Eve. Here is the first death that I believe is spoken of:

Genesis 2 (Septuagint into English-Brenton)

2:16 And the Lord God gave a charge to Adam, saying, Of every tree which is in the garden thou mayest freely eat,
2:17 but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil-- of it ye shall not eat, but in whatsoever day ye eat of it, ye shall surely die.

Now the scripture states that on the day Adam ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, he would surely die. This would refute the argument that a physical death is what is being stated here. Did Adam physically die on the day that he ate of the tree? No, he didn't, but God did not lie. Even though physical death is a consequence of sin it is not what occurred here, the "First Death". The First Death did occur on the the day Adam ate from the tree, his spiritual death as sin entered his life and separated him from the presence of God our Father. Every man and woman from this event is born into the world in the same death as Adam experienced. The First Resurrection now must go hand in hand with the "First Death". It makes perfect scriptural sense that this is only in the atoning work of our Lord Jesus Christ. In Him we have been resurrected unto life in Him.

Ephesians 2

Made Alive in Christ

1As for you, you were dead in your transgressions and sins, 2in which you used to live when you followed the ways of this world and of the ruler of the kingdom of the air, the spirit who is now at work in those who are disobedient. 3All of us also lived among them at one time, gratifying the cravings of our sinful nature[a (http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=56&chapter=2&version=31&context=chapter#fen-NIV-29217a)] and following its desires and thoughts. Like the rest, we were by nature objects of wrath. 4But because of his great love for us, God, who is rich in mercy, 5made us alive with Christ even when we were dead in transgressions—it is by grace you have been saved.

Colossians 1

19For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him, 20and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether things on earth or things in heaven, by making peace through his blood, shed on the cross.
21Once you were alienated from God and were enemies in your minds because of[f (http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=58&chapter=1&version=31&context=chapter#fen-NIV-29471f)] your evil behavior. 22But now he has reconciled you by Christ's physical body through death to present you holy in his sight, without blemish and free from accusation— 23if you continue in your faith, established and firm, not moved from the hope held out in the gospel.


Colossians 2

13When you were dead in your sins and in the uncircumcision of your sinful nature, [B]God made you[c (http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?book_id=58&chapter=2&version=31&context=chapter#fen-NIV-29492c)] alive with Christ. He forgave us all our sins, 14having canceled the written code, with its regulations, that was against us and that stood opposed to us; he took it away, nailing it to the cross.

There are numerous other scriptures but I believe the point is made.
We must understand that our spiritual death is what needed to be resurrected and this is what was accomplished through the atoning work of our Lord's blood shed on the cross and what I believe is referenced in Revelation 20.

wpm
May 1st 2007, 07:35 PM
3H


To understand what Christ does in Matthew 25:31-46, one must understand the reasons why Christ has to come back to earth. God made a promise to David 3000 years ago. That promise is that God will set up His Son, who will be a "son" of David, who will rule the entire world from Jerusalem. (Psalm 2, 2 Samuel 7). The Jews believed that when the Christ first came, that He would fulfill that promise, and bring Israel to prominence. This is why many of them rebelled against Rome at that time, because everyone was expecting the Messiah to come. It is also the reason why Herod wanted to have him killed before he reached maturity. (Matthew 2).

The son of David simply referred to His human lineage.


How did they come to this conclusion?

Because (like yourself) they were looking to a wordly kingdom which would never be. Jesus, whilst speaking to Pilot shortly before His death, declared, “My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight,that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence. Pilate therefore said unto him, Art thou a king then? Jesus answered,Thou sayest that I am a king. To this end was I born, and for this cause came I into the world, that I should bear witness unto the truth. Every one that is of the truth heareth my voice”(John 18:36-37).


They looked at the prophecy of Daniel (Dan 9:24-27), and figured out that the point in which they were in would fulfill the 62 weeks portion of that prophecy. Therefore, because they have been taught that the Christ would rule the world, they thought that He would do that then, when He went to Jerusalem. However, they did not figure on the Lord actually having to die, just as Daniel foretold in verse 25.

In short they misinterpreted OT Scripture.



Now, just as David foretold, the future King of the World would not suffer to stay in the sheol forever (acts 2).


Acts 2 proves Christ took David's throne at the first Advent. The answer is found in Acts 2:25-36. Here is the start of Christ's heavenly rule from heaven. Until you get a revelation of this you will never see the heavenly fulfilment of this. Peter preaching on Psalm 110:1, when speaking about David and his throne, says, “For David speaketh concerning him, I foresaw the Lord always before my face, for he is on my right hand, that I should not be moved: Therefore did my heart rejoice, and my tongue was glad; moreover also my flesh shall rest in hope: Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. Thou hast made known to me the ways of life; thou shalt make me full of joy with thy countenance. Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day. Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne; he seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption. This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses. Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear. For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, the Lord said unto my Lord, sit thou on my right hand, until I make thy foes thy footstool [speaking of Psalm 110:1]. Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ” (Acts 2:25-36).

This reading tells us that David didn’t physically conquer the grave, or has “ascended into the heavens” to sit at the right hand of the Father as Christ. However, Christ (Israel’s true king) did. Our Lord’s “soul was not left in Hades, neither his flesh did see corruption.” This is speaking of Christ’s great victory over death and the grave through His triumphant resurrection. It is not speaking of our Lord’s Second Coming as Premillennialists wrongly suggest. Moreover, it identifies this throne as David’s kingly throne, for – “he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne.” Peter then plainly says reference David, “he seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ.”



And true to form, Christ rose from the dead. When this happened, His own disciples thought that He would rule the world from that point onward. However, that was not the case, as Christ Himself told the Disciples to not wonder about the time in which God will appoint Him to restore the Kingdom, which was the kingdom of Israel, to fulfill the promise that God originally made to David, (Acts 1:8).


You make much of this simple question that the disciples directed toward Christ in the middle of his talk on ‘tarrying in Jerusalem’ and the impending ‘Pentecostal empowerment’. The disciples’ prejudice towards their own physical nation is undoubtedly revealed in this question, however, there is nothing in it that indicates that it embodied anything other than a genuine desire to see their own fellow nationals saved.

Whilst there is no doubt that the Jews were still very parochial in their vision, it seems highly unlikely, after forty days of detailed preaching on the kingdom of God and in the midst of the Lord’s spiritual discourse on the power that would accompany the advance of the kingdom, that the disciples’ thinking was at all fixed upon the idea of a carnal Jewish kingdom, which was plainly never taught anywhere else in Christ’s post-Calvary teaching. Rather, the disciples understood full well that the broad mass of their kith and kin – natural Israel – had rejected their Messiah and they, with good reason, wondered whether the kingdom of God (this spiritual kingdom) would ever again be offered to their fellow countrymen (now, or in the future).

Christ’s measured response to the disciples query supports such a notion, proving it to be in perfect accord with, and a continuation of, His teaching in relation to the kingdom of God (the subject He was undoubtedly advancing prior to the disciples’ enquiry). The nature of Christ’s reply supports the belief of the spiritual character of the disciples’ question; His answer being a clear spiritual response to the disciples’ clear spiritual enquiry. Jesus said, “It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power. But ye shall receive power (or dunamis) , after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.”

Christ did in no way here ignore or dismiss the disciples’ genuine spiritual query about natural Israel, as some would have us believe, rather the contrary, He directly addressed it in His response. In doing so, He reiterated His earlier teaching on the impending spiritual empowerment that would come upon the kingdom, just prior to the disciples’ interjection, only now He geographically confirmed that the spread of that message would embrace the actual nation of Israel (the locations of “Jerusalem,” “Judaea” and “Samaria” being identified). Nonetheless, in His response, He went further, widening out the disciples regional vision, which was still very localised, to encompass “the uttermost part of the earth.” The disciples would thus, after a short season of tarrying in Jerusalem and a indispensable empowerment from on high, be living “witnesses” of the kingdom of God not only in their own natural land as they had wondered but to all the nations of the world.


Now understand this. Jesus has to return to the earth for one reason. He has to fulfill the promise that God gave to David. He is the only one who can. He is the one who was born of David's seed, however being the true and only begotten Son of God, He alone qualifies as the person who can restore the kingdom of Israel, and rule the entire world from Jerusalem.

As I have showed you He already has. Paul then enlarges and explains, “And we declare unto you glad tidings, how that the promise which was made unto the fathers, God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. And as concerning that [Psalm 2] he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise [His glorious rise to the throne], I will give you the sure mercies of David [quoting Isaiah 55:3]”(vv 32-34).

Paul outlines the fulfilment of the Messianic hope; the promised Messiah had already come and taken the throne of David, although, evidently, not in the person or in the manner that they had carnally imagined. Paul here applies the Old Testament promises in Psalm 2 and Isaiah 55 to Christ’s death, burial and resurrection to the throne; and explains how such prophecies had already gloriously happened. Paul, here, is confirming an important (and truly significant) eternal truth that proves that Christ has already assumed His kingly reign over Israel, as the prophets said it would be. His victorious triumph over death at the resurrection was the complete fulfilment of “the promise which was made unto the (Old Testament) fathers.”



Therefore, He will return to establish His throne and His Kingdom. This is why in Matthew 25:31, the wording is as follows:

When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory, And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth [his] sheep from the goats:

You see, when CHrist comes, what we call the return of the Lord, He will gather the nations to Himself, and will sit on His throne. Now I know that many read the term, sit on the throne of His glory and think the Great White Throne. However, Daniel makes a reference to the Lord, otherwise known as the Son of man, coming in clouds of heaven, having been given authority over all of the nations of the world, and great glory to go with it. (Daniel 7:13-14). He will sit on His glorious throne in Jerusalem, and judge the nations, separating them. The ones that He deems worthy to stay on earth will stay, and those that He deems vile will be executed. The surviving nations will have to serve Him until the end of the earth. (Zechariah 14:9-21).

This is the final general judgment. Two types of people stand before Christ - saved and lost. There are no third group of wicked who assault Jerusalem that will be rewarded for their evil by being ushered into the kingdom of God.


Now that I am on that subject, look at Daniel 7. Especially verses 13-14, 22, and 27. You see that the saints are judged by the Father, and also the kingdom of the beast and the Little Horn is judged by the Father. The Father gives judgment to the saints and then they go to the earth to take it as a posession.

Daniel 7:13-14 says, “I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him. And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed.”

When most people read this reference to the Son of Man coming with clouds they immediately assume that it relates to the Second Coming of the Lord. However, if they would carefully examine the wording of the passage and particularly the import of the reading, they would find that it makes absolutely no mention to Christ coming to earth in the clouds, but rather, it is speaking of Christ rising into the presence of His Father – the Ancient of Days – to receive His reward. The narrative expressly says, “the Son of man … came to the Ancient of days.” This glorious event occurred after the cross when He triumphantly entered into the portals of heaven in a cloud to sit at the right hand of majesty on high.


In Revelation 20, there are those being judged, and judgment was given to them, as well as thrones. These are those who have been beheaded by the beast, which in Daniel 7, was the little horn who said blasphemies against God, who attacked the saints and murdered them. These saints have been given favor, and were resurrected and judged to rule the nations with Christ when He rules the entire world.

The saints in Rev 20 are the dead in Christ now.


According to Revelation 20, the rest of the dead, meaning the righteous and the wicked, do not get resurrected until after the earth is being destroyed. This is the last Day, and after that, the eareth, heaven and the old order dies, or get's hurled into the Lake of Fire. So you see, At Christ return, He takes over the earth. His Judgment is in favor of the saints who died by beheading for the sake of refusing to bow to the beast, or take his mark. This is why there are two resurrections, and two judgment days. One for the survivors of His return, and the other for all mankind.

The world and the wicked are actually destroyed at Christ's return. Just like Noah's day and Sodom none survive. I Thessalonians 5:2-7 says, “the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night. For when they shall say, Peace and safety; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child; and they shall not escape. But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief. Ye are all the children of light, and the children of the day: we are not of the night, nor of darkness. Therefore let us not sleep, as do others; but let us watch and be sober. For they that sleep sleep in the night; and they that be drunken are drunken in the night.”

Please note (1) the destruction is “sudden” and (2) the wicked “shall not escape.” Now I note that you believe the wicked shall escape, however this conflicts with the sacred pages. You are therefore arguing with clear simple explicit Scripture. The fire that arrives is depicted as being totally destructive to the wicked, not empowering or edifying as you are suggesting.


I hope this helps a little.

Your mislocating of several first Advent Scriptures can never help to prove their rightful fufilment.

Paul

third hero
May 1st 2007, 08:46 PM
3H



The son of David simply referred to His human lineage.



Because (like yourself) they were looking to a wordly kingdom which would never be. Jesus, whilst speaking to Pilot shortly before His death, declared, “My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight,that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence. Pilate therefore said unto him, Art thou a king then? Jesus answered,Thou sayest that I am a king. To this end was I born, and for this cause came I into the world, that I should bear witness unto the truth. Every one that is of the truth heareth my voice”(John 18:36-37).



In short they misinterpreted OT Scripture.



Acts 2 proves Christ took David's throne at the first Advent. The answer is found in Acts 2:25-36. Here is the start of Christ's heavenly rule from heaven. Until you get a revelation of this you will never see the heavenly fulfilment of this. Peter preaching on Psalm 110:1, when speaking about David and his throne, says, “For David speaketh concerning him, I foresaw the Lord always before my face, for he is on my right hand, that I should not be moved: Therefore did my heart rejoice, and my tongue was glad; moreover also my flesh shall rest in hope: Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. Thou hast made known to me the ways of life; thou shalt make me full of joy with thy countenance. Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day. Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne; he seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption. This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses. Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear. For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, the Lord said unto my Lord, sit thou on my right hand, until I make thy foes thy footstool [speaking of Psalm 110:1]. Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ” (Acts 2:25-36).

This reading tells us that David didn’t physically conquer the grave, or has “ascended into the heavens” to sit at the right hand of the Father as Christ. However, Christ (Israel’s true king) did. Our Lord’s “soul was not left in Hades, neither his flesh did see corruption.” This is speaking of Christ’s great victory over death and the grave through His triumphant resurrection. It is not speaking of our Lord’s Second Coming as Premillennialists wrongly suggest. Moreover, it identifies this throne as David’s kingly throne, for – “he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne.” Peter then plainly says reference David, “he seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ.”



You make much of this simple question that the disciples directed toward Christ in the middle of his talk on ‘tarrying in Jerusalem’ and the impending ‘Pentecostal empowerment’. The disciples’ prejudice towards their own physical nation is undoubtedly revealed in this question, however, there is nothing in it that indicates that it embodied anything other than a genuine desire to see their own fellow nationals saved.

Whilst there is no doubt that the Jews were still very parochial in their vision, it seems highly unlikely, after forty days of detailed preaching on the kingdom of God and in the midst of the Lord’s spiritual discourse on the power that would accompany the advance of the kingdom, that the disciples’ thinking was at all fixed upon the idea of a carnal Jewish kingdom, which was plainly never taught anywhere else in Christ’s post-Calvary teaching. Rather, the disciples understood full well that the broad mass of their kith and kin – natural Israel – had rejected their Messiah and they, with good reason, wondered whether the kingdom of God (this spiritual kingdom) would ever again be offered to their fellow countrymen (now, or in the future).

Christ’s measured response to the disciples query supports such a notion, proving it to be in perfect accord with, and a continuation of, His teaching in relation to the kingdom of God (the subject He was undoubtedly advancing prior to the disciples’ enquiry). The nature of Christ’s reply supports the belief of the spiritual character of the disciples’ question; His answer being a clear spiritual response to the disciples’ clear spiritual enquiry. Jesus said, “It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power. But ye shall receive power (or dunamis) , after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.”

Christ did in no way here ignore or dismiss the disciples’ genuine spiritual query about natural Israel, as some would have us believe, rather the contrary, He directly addressed it in His response. In doing so, He reiterated His earlier teaching on the impending spiritual empowerment that would come upon the kingdom, just prior to the disciples’ interjection, only now He geographically confirmed that the spread of that message would embrace the actual nation of Israel (the locations of “Jerusalem,” “Judaea” and “Samaria” being identified). Nonetheless, in His response, He went further, widening out the disciples regional vision, which was still very localised, to encompass “the uttermost part of the earth.” The disciples would thus, after a short season of tarrying in Jerusalem and a indispensable empowerment from on high, be living “witnesses” of the kingdom of God not only in their own natural land as they had wondered but to all the nations of the world.



As I have showed you He already has. Paul then enlarges and explains, “And we declare unto you glad tidings, how that the promise which was made unto the fathers, God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. And as concerning that [Psalm 2] he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise [His glorious rise to the throne], I will give you the sure mercies of David [quoting Isaiah 55:3]”(vv 32-34).

Paul outlines the fulfilment of the Messianic hope; the promised Messiah had already come and taken the throne of David, although, evidently, not in the person or in the manner that they had carnally imagined. Paul here applies the Old Testament promises in Psalm 2 and Isaiah 55 to Christ’s death, burial and resurrection to the throne; and explains how such prophecies had already gloriously happened. Paul, here, is confirming an important (and truly significant) eternal truth that proves that Christ has already assumed His kingly reign over Israel, as the prophets said it would be. His victorious triumph over death at the resurrection was the complete fulfilment of “the promise which was made unto the (Old Testament) fathers.”




This is the final general judgment. Two types of people stand before Christ - saved and lost. There are no third group of wicked who assault Jerusalem that will be rewarded for their evil by being ushered into the kingdom of God.



Daniel 7:13-14 says, “I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him. And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed.”

When most people read this reference to the Son of Man coming with clouds they immediately assume that it relates to the Second Coming of the Lord. However, if they would carefully examine the wording of the passage and particularly the import of the reading, they would find that it makes absolutely no mention to Christ coming to earth in the clouds, but rather, it is speaking of Christ rising into the presence of His Father – the Ancient of Days – to receive His reward. The narrative expressly says, “the Son of man … came to the Ancient of days.” This glorious event occurred after the cross when He triumphantly entered into the portals of heaven in a cloud to sit at the right hand of majesty on high.



The saints in Rev 20 are the dead in Christ now.



The world and the wicked are actually destroyed at Christ's return. Just like Noah's day and Sodom none survive. I Thessalonians 5:2-7 says, “the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night. For when they shall say, Peace and safety; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child; and they shall not escape. But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief. Ye are all the children of light, and the children of the day: we are not of the night, nor of darkness. Therefore let us not sleep, as do others; but let us watch and be sober. For they that sleep sleep in the night; and they that be drunken are drunken in the night.”

Please note (1) the destruction is “sudden” and (2) the wicked “shall not escape.” Now I note that you believe the wicked shall escape, however this conflicts with the sacred pages. You are therefore arguing with clear simple explicit Scripture. The fire that arrives is depicted as being totally destructive to the wicked, not empowering or edifying as you are suggesting.



Your mislocating of several first Advent Scriptures can never help to prove their rightful fufilment.

Paul

Wpm, I am not going to debate you in this thread. I will not give in to such a thing. My only concern here, and is the only reason I posted a thought here, is to answer Durbandude's question.

Durbindude, I hope I have answered your question. If you want to know more about what wpm, rumulus and all of the postmil/amils are talking about, I will not interrupt you. If you want to know more about why there are obviouslyu two resurrections as described in the Revelation 20, let me know.

Thank you.

DurbanDude
May 2nd 2007, 08:42 AM
Thanks for your opinions so far , any more??

John146
May 2nd 2007, 05:00 PM
Many believe the resurrection will occur when Jesus comes again in glory. Jesus himself says in Matthew 25: 31-46 that when he comes there will be eternal judgement on the unrighteous, indicating that the day of the resurrection and the day of judgement are the same day.

Yet Revelation 20 indicates that the first resurrection occurs 1000 years before the day of judgement for the unrighteous.

Could somebody explain this please?

I wont be involved in this thread and haven't got any answers myself , just want to read the various viewpoints (please short posts)

John 5:28-29, Daniel 12:2 and Acts 24:15 also indicate that the righteous and the unrighteous are resurrected at the same time. Therefore the resurrection that occurs at Christ's coming has to be the second resurrection because only the righteous take part in the first resurrection.

Christ is the firstfruits or first resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:20-23) and we take part in His resurrection when we are saved/born again. When we are saved we are raised up to new spiritual life and sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus (Ephesians 2:5-6). We were once spiritually dead in our sins (Eph 2:1,5) but Christ raised us up spiritually to spiritual life when we were born again and that is how we take part in the first resurrection. Colossians 2:12 says that we are buried with Him in baptism and risen with Him through faith. Once we physically die, we do not die spiritually. We go to be with the Lord in heaven and reign with Him there. That is why souls are depicted as reigning with Christ. Our souls come to life when we are born again and continue to live and reign with Christ after we physically die and go to be with the Lord.

RogerW
May 2nd 2007, 05:49 PM
Many believe the resurrection will occur when Jesus comes again in glory. Jesus himself says in Matthew 25: 31-46 that when he comes there will be eternal judgement on the unrighteous, indicating that the day of the resurrection and the day of judgement are the same day.

Yet Revelation 20 indicates that the first resurrection occurs 1000 years before the day of judgement for the unrighteous.

Could somebody explain this please?

I wont be involved in this thread and haven't got any answers myself , just want to read the various viewpoints (please short posts)

I apologize in advance for not honoring your wishes to keep this short. Perhaps you can try to digest it in segments. This is actually composed of several studies I've done on this topic over time.
We have a time frame of one thousand years. During this time Christ is building His Kingdom through the church which has been commissioned to “go ye into all the world” with the message of the cross. In order for the elect to come into the Kingdom through the gospel, Christ had to first bind Satan, which He did at the cross. We’re still in the one thousand year time frame. Satan is bound during this time (symbolic one thousand years). All who come into the Kingdom reign with Christ (symbolic one thousand years). The rest of the dead (all who are deceived, of their father the devil) are raised for Judgment at the end of this one thousand year time period. If the building of the Kingdom takes one thousand years, and Satan has been bound for one thousand years, and the dead (i.e. those deceived by Satan) are resurrected for Judgment at the end of one thousand years….who is left for Satan to deceive after one thousand years? And…where do we see this time where Satan goes out to deceive, since the one thousand years expiring signals the END OF TIME?

It seems (to me anyway) that the purpose for the loosing of Satan is so that he can gather together his great army, come against Christ and His saints one last time, at which time fire will come down from God out of heaven to devour, and Satan and all who follow him will be cast into the lake of fire. So, it seems the reason for his being finally set free, is to bring him into everlasting Judgment.

I am of the opinion that few students of the Word take the time to look up words like “little” or “season.” I mean, why should we? These are simple, self-explanatory words, aren’t they?

Perhaps we should try to define what is meant by “little season.” It is my opinion that this “little season” is not of “time” but rather an “interval between time and eternity” or “opportunity.” I would further argue that it is a very brief, or short-lived opportunity.

Little: 3398 mikros {mik-ros'} including the comparative mikroteros {mik-rot'-er-os}
1) small, little
a) of size: hence of stature, of length
b) of space
c) of age: less by birth, younger
d) of time: short, brief, a little while, how little!
e) of quantity: i.e. number, amount
f) of rank or influence
Apparently a primary word; small (in size, quantity, number or (figuratively) dignity):--least, less, little, small.

Season: 5550 chronos {khron'-os}
1) time either long or short
Of uncertain derivation; a space of time (in general, and thus properly distinguished from 2540, which designates a fixed or special occasion; and from 165, which denotes a particular period) or INTERVAL; by extension, AN INDIVIDUAL OPPORTUNITY; by implication, delay:--+ years old, season, space, (X often-)time(-s), (a) while.

… “and after that he must be loosed a LITTLE SEASON.”

As the definition shows us, “season” could be a reference to time, but it can also be an interval (between time and eternity), or an opportunity. It can be a long or short time, interval, or opportunity. The verse tells us it is “little.” My argument is that when Satan is loosed from his pit at the end of one thousand years, that signals the completion, or fullness of time. Since Satan has been in the world from the beginning, and deceiving all of the unbelieving world, it is my opinion that this “little season” or brief interval (between time and eternity), or opportunity is allotted him to gather together his army, come against Christ and His saints and be cast into the lake of fire. The purpose for his freedom is Judgment!

At the birth of the NT church, Satan and his angels are cast out of heaven unto the earth. The inhabitants of the earth and the sea are in great peril, “woe” (great tribulation) because Satan knows that he has but a “short time”. This is the beginning of the NT church era, not the end of one thousand years of being bound. If Satan is given an equivalent “little season” after the one thousand years are expired, then why doesn’t Scripture simply re-state that he is given a “short time” or a little time as it says here? Here we know the short time will encompass the whole NT era. Why the mystery and confusion after one thousand years? Could it be because “time” is not in view here, but rather an interval between time and eternity, or opportunity to gather together all who will spend eternity with him in the lake of fire?

Re 12:12 Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that HE HATH BUT A SHORT TIME.

Those saints who have died for the Word of God, and the testimony which they held from the OT era cry out for vengeance. They are given white robes and told they must rest for a “little season” until their fellow servants and brethren are killed as they were. This it the beginning of the NT era, not the end, not after the one thousand years, but before. This is informing us that many more saints will be martyred for Christ, and its called a “little season” exactly the same definition as found in Rev 20:3. Shall we argue that Satan’s “little season” will last more than two thousand years? What would be the purpose of having Satan loosed on the earth deceived and deceiving unbelievers for more than two thousand years after the saints have all come into the Kingdom?

Re 6:11 And white robes were given unto every one of them; and it was said unto them, that they should REST YET FOR A LITTLE SEASON, until their fellowservants also and their brethren, that should be killed as they were, should be fulfilled.

If Satan was bound to keep him from deceiving all the world, so that the Kingdom of God could be built (and he was), and this he has been doing from the beginning, why would it be necessary to loosen Satan from his pit to go out to deceive those he has already fully deceived while being bound?

Re 12:9 And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the DEVIL, AND SATAN, WHICH DECEIVETH THE WHOLE WORLD: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.

Re 12:12 Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. WOE TO THE INHABITERS OF THE EARTH AND OF THE SEA! FOR THE DEVIL IS COME DOWN UNTO YOU, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.

Re 13:14 AND DECEIVETH THEM THAT DWELL ON THE EARTH by the means of those miracles which he had power to do in the sight of the beast; saying to them that dwell on the earth, that they should make an image to the beast, which had the wound by a sword, and did live.

Re 13:16 And HE CAUSETH ALL, both small and great, rich and poor, free and bond, TO RECEIVE A MARK IN THEIR RIGHT HAND, OR IN THEIR FOREHEADS:

Re 18:23 And the light of a candle shall shine no more at all in thee; and the voice of the bridegroom and of the bride shall be heard no more at all in thee: for thy merchants were the great men of the earth; FOR BY THY SORCERIES WERE ALL NATIONS DECEIVED.

Re 19:20 And the beast was taken, and with him the false prophet that wrought miracles before him, with WHICH HE DECEIVED THEM THAT HAD RECEIVED THE MARK OF THE BEAST, AND THEM THAT WORSHIPPED HIS IMAGE. These both were cast alive into a lake of fire burning with brimstone.

Revelation 20:3 tells us that Satan is bound. But, he is only bound in the sense that he cannot keep the elect of God from coming into the Kingdom. It is in this sense that he is bound “that he should deceive the nations no more” i.e. all the elect of God throughout the four corners of the world. God will build His Kingdom and though the gates of hell shall come against that building, the Kingdom of God will be complete, and Satan‘s deceiving will not prevail against the elect body of Christ.

According to vs. 4 all who live and reign with Christ for one thousand years are in the Kingdom. There is no longer any purpose for keeping Satan bound. The Kingdom of Heaven is complete. So all those on the outside, “the rest of the dead” are already deceived. Who is left for Satan to deceive? The “rest of the dead” are raised for Judgment after the thousand years are finished.

Re 20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.

Re 20:12 And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God; and the books were opened: and another book was opened, which is the book of life: and the dead were judged out of those things which were written in the books, according to their works.
Re 20:13 And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works.
Re 20:14 And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death.
Re 20:15 And whosoever was not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire.

This is also the time (after the thousand years) where Satan is loosed to go into the four corners of the world to gather together his army to come one final time against Christ and His saints. Why would he need to deceive those who are already deceived? Immediately, fire comes down from God out of heaven, and Satan is cast into the lake of fire.

Re 20:7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,
Re 20:8 And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.
Re 20:9 And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them.
Re 20:10 And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.

If Satan is loosed after all of the elect have come into the Kingdom, wouldn’t that mean that all those who are left are already deceived? Wouldn’t they already be of their father, the devil (Jo 8:44), and therefore deceived? Since they are already deceived, how can Satan being loosed and going out to gather them together deceive them? Isn’t the fact that they are already deceived that they will follow their father the devil in the end to come against Christ and the saints one last time?

The definition for the Greek word, plane [deceived] in Rev 20:8 shows us that these deceived people are wandering, or straying as they are being led by error, and deceit. They are being led astray from the right way, and convinced that following Satan as he gathers them together to come against Christ and the saints is truth. They do this because God has sent them strong delusion [4106 plane] that they should believe a lie. It is not that they are yet to be deceived, but rather they follow the deceiver because they have already come under strong delusion, they are already deceived.

The Greek word translated “deceived” is 4106 plane; feminine of 4108 planos

1) a wandering, a straying about
a) one led astray from the right way, roams hither and thither

2) metaph.
a) mental straying
1) error, wrong opinion relative to morals or religion
b) error which shows itself in action, a wrong mode of acting
c) error, that which leads into error, deceit or fraud

2Th 2:11 And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion [4106 plane], that they should believe a lie:
2Th 2:12 That they all might be damned who believed not the truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness.

The Greek word translated “loosed” is 3089 luo

1) to loose any person (or thing) tied or fastened
a) bandages of the feet, the shoes,
b) of a husband and wife joined together by the bond of matrimony
c) of a single man, whether he has already had a wife or has not yet married

2) to loose one bound, i.e. to unbind, release from bonds, set free
a) of one bound up (swathed in bandages)
b) bound with chains (a prisoner), discharge from prison, let go

3) to loosen, undo, dissolve, anything bound, tied, or compacted together
a) an assembly, i.e. to dismiss, break up
b) laws, as having a binding force, are likened to bonds
c) to annul, subvert
d) to do away with, to deprive of authority, whether by precept or act
e) to declare unlawful
f) to loose what is compacted or built together, to break up, demolish, destroy
g) to dissolve something coherent into parts, to destroy
h) metaph., to overthrow, to do away with

Of the above definitions for the word “loosed” in Rev 20:7, the correct way to interpret this word is found in #3 which shows us Satan is being loosed for the purpose of being done away with, or overthrown, to annul, subvert, deprive of authority, brake up, demolish…finally to destroy. When we look for how this word has been used in various verses of Scripture, we find it has been translated destroy, broken, put off, shall melt, shall be dissolved. And finally we find this same word being translated as “he might destroy” speaking of Christ being made manifest to destroy the works of the devil.

Joh 2:19 Jesus answered and said unto them, [Destroy 3089] this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.

Joh 5:18 Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had [broken 3089] the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.

Ac 7:33 Then said the Lord to him, [Put off 3089] thy shoes from thy feet: for the place where thou standest is holy ground.

2Pe 3:10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements [shall melt 3089] with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.

2Pe 3:11 Seeing then that all these things [shall be dissolved 3089], what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,

1Jo 3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that [he might destroy 3089] the works of the devil.

Re 20:7 And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,
Re 20:8 And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.
Re 20:9 And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them.
Re 20:10 And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.
Re 20:11 And I saw a great white throne, and him that sat on it, from whose face the
earth and the heaven fled away; and there was found no place for them.

The symbolic thousand years when Satan is bound is to prevent him from keeping all of the elect from coming into the Kingdom. Obviously, since Satan has been bound, the elect are coming into the Kingdom during this time when Satan is bound, and they are from the moment they become saved reigning with Christ for one thousand symbolic years. If the elect are coming into the Kingdom during this binding of Satan and said to be reigning with Christ, where is there a difference in the one thousand year period? How does this thousand years differ? The thousand years symbolizes the fullness of TIME. How can there be more time after time has ended? Again, I must ask, who is Satan deceiving? The elect are reigning with Christ, the Kingdom is complete, only unbelievers are left. Why would Christ delay His Second Coming once the Kingdom is complete?
There is nothing in Rev 20 to suggest that more than a single one thousand years period of time, or the fullness of ALL time is in view. The thousand years of vs. 2,3,4,5,6,7 is a running dialog speaking of the same thousand years, or the FULLNESS OF TIME, consisting of the whole NT or Kingdom age/era/generation.

RW

ross3421
May 2nd 2007, 06:52 PM
Many believe the resurrection will occur when Jesus comes again in glory. Jesus himself says in Matthew 25: 31-46 that when he comes there will be eternal judgement on the unrighteous, indicating that the day of the resurrection and the day of judgement are the same day.

Yet Revelation 20 indicates that the first resurrection occurs 1000 years before the day of judgement for the unrighteous.

Could somebody explain this please?

I wont be involved in this thread and haven't got any answers myself , just want to read the various viewpoints (please short posts)

DD,

When you take the 1000 years literally and then yes there seems to be confusion. Christ returns whereby the rightous and wicked are resurrected on the last day. Scripture is clear on this......

Joh 11:24Martha saith unto him, I know that he shall rise again in the resurrection at the last day.

Joh 12:48He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.

Nowhere does it show a gap of a 1000 years between resurrections, but quite the contrary. Again, it all boils down to understanding that the phrase "1000 year" is a metaphor which actually signifies timlessness. A close study shows that the events which occur during this supposed time in chapter 20 have also occurred prior to Christs return.

I will resurrect my thread on this matter.

Mark.

ShirleyFord
May 4th 2007, 12:44 AM
Many believe the resurrection will occur when Jesus comes again in glory. Jesus himself says in Matthew 25: 31-46 that when he comes there will be eternal judgement on the unrighteous, indicating that the day of the resurrection and the day of judgement are the same day.

Yet Revelation 20 indicates that the first resurrection occurs 1000 years before the day of judgement for the unrighteous.

Could somebody explain this please?

I wont be involved in this thread and haven't got any answers myself , just want to read the various viewpoints (please short posts)

DD,

This is the OP on a thread I started here several months ago:

Why the First Resurrection is not the Physical Resurrection
http://bibleforums.org/showthread.php?t=61257

Since the first resurrection in Revelation 20 has to do with the righteous only is cause enough to interpret it figuratively for Jesus said in John 6:39, 40, 44, and 54 that he would raise the righteous on "the last day."

John 6:39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.

40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.

41 The Jews then murmured at him, because he said, I am the bread which came down from heaven.

42 And they said, Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? how is it then that he saith, I came down from heaven?

43 Jesus therefore answered and said unto them, Murmur not among yourselves.

44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.

45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.

46 Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father.

47 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life.

48 I am that bread of life.

49 Your fathers did eat manna in the wilderness, and are dead.

50 This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die.

51 I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.

52 The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat?

53 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.

54 Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

These verses would not be true if the righteous were raised and then 1000 literal years pass before "the last day." Since the "first resurrection" does not occur on "the last day" it does not refer to the literal physical resurrection of the righteous from their graves.

So, there will not be any literal physical resurrection until the last day when both the righteous and the wicked will be raised together literally according to John 5:28-29.

John 5:28-29 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice, And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.



Shirley