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Deuteronomy 29:6

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  • Deuteronomy 29:6

    Hello, chaps. I'm a bit new to the Bible; I'm reading through it for the first time. (I'm also new to the forums). I'm using the New International Version, which I gather is a modern translation of the King James Version, the traditional Protestant Bible. Have I got it all right so far?

    My question is about the book of Deuteronomy. As I understand it, this is the final speech given by Moses to the Israelites before he dies and Joshua leads them into Canaan. Because it is a speech, I can understand why the book uses "I" rather than "Moses."

    Given that logic, this particular verse (Deut 29:6) confuses me.
    Moses summoned all the Israelites and said to them (Deut 29:2):
    ...You ate no bread and drank no wine or other fermented drink. I did this so you might know that I am the Lord your God. (Deut. 29:6)

    Between verses 2 and 5, the passage is written in the first person (using "I"). Moses refers to God as "our" Lord. Then suddenly in verse 6, he says "I am the Lord." Now, being a first-time student of the Bible, I would assume I am interpreting the verse incorrectly. Still, looking at the Latin Vulgate translation, I see this:

    Panem non comedistis vinum et siceram non bibistis ut sciretis quia ego sum Dominus Deus vester. (Deut. 29:6)

    In Latin, the subject of a sentence ("I," "you," etc.) is normally not mentioned but is implied by the verb ending. The fact that ego ("I") is mentioned means that the speaker is placing really strong emphasis on himself.

    Can anyone tell me why Moses might have said this? As a first-time student of the Bible, am I just thinking too much?

  • #2
    "I AM" is a title given in Exodus.

    Exd 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.

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    • #3
      oh...I didn't even think of that.
      Thank you.

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