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(Some) Under The Law?

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  • (Some) Under The Law?

    What, then, was the purpose of the law? It was added because of transgressions until the Seed to whom the promise referred had come … So the law was put in charge to lead us to Christ that we might be justified by faith. Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law. (Galatians 3:19,24-25)
    The law was added temporarily at Sinai (verse 17) and it lasted until the ‘seed’ (Christ) came. After that, we as believers are no longer under the law.

    Now, my question is this: Was the law annulled for all people when the seed came? Or was it annulled for believers only?

    I.O.W. does God consider the law still is force for unbelievers and annulled (individually) as they come to faith?

    Cyberseeker
    "Your name and renown
    is the desire of our hearts."
    (Isaiah 26:8)

  • #2
    Originally posted by Cyberseeker View Post
    The law was added temporarily at Sinai (verse 17) and it lasted until the ‘seed’ (Christ) came. After that, we as believers are no longer under the law.

    Now, my question is this: Was the law annulled for all people when the seed came? Or was it annulled for believers only?

    I.O.W. does God consider the law still is force for unbelievers and annulled (individually) as they come to faith?

    Cyberseeker
    The Gentile nations were never amenable to the Law of Moses. This was a special law that governed only the covenant between God and Israel. This particular covenant was effectual long before Moses received the law at Sinai. Thus, it can be said that there was a change of law and priesthood even with Israel.

    When Jesus came with his ratified covenant, there again was a change of law and priesthood, Heb 7:12. This covenant is effective for all nations, including Israel. This then, along with scripture which clearly says so, renders the old law ineffectual, including the covenant it governed. In fact, it has become "a ministry of death", 2 Cor 3:7ff, including the Ten Commandments.
    Jake

    What does the bible say?

    Comment


    • #3
      Thanks for answering. I guess what Im trying to think through is concerning unbelievers. How can unbelievers be judged guilty if they are not under a legal system that defines sin?
      "Your name and renown
      is the desire of our hearts."
      (Isaiah 26:8)

      Comment


      • #4
        Originally posted by Cyberseeker View Post
        Thanks for answering. I guess what Im trying to think through is concerning unbelievers. How can unbelievers be judged guilty if they are not under a legal system that defines sin?
        The following scripture tells us how we shall all be judged.

        2 Thess 1:8 In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ:

        1 Pet 4:17 For the time is come that judgment must begin at the house of God: and if it first begin at us, what shall the end be of them that obey not the gospel of God?

        God bless you!

        Firstfruits

        Comment


        • #5
          Originally posted by Firstfruits View Post
          The following scripture tells us how we shall all be judged.

          2 Thess 1:8 In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ:

          1 Pet 4:17 For the time is come that judgment must begin at the house of God: and if it first begin at us, what shall the end be of them that obey not the gospel of God?

          God bless you!

          Firstfruits

          God will judge His Children with a flaming fire taking vengenance on them?
          is this what your saying...??

          or are you referring this done to those who 'know' not God...



          a Believers works will be tested .. by fire.. but if they burn up.. thats what burns up... but the Believer shall still be saved...
          Many appear Righteous and Just because they say 'yes' to Jesus Christ , yet they don't do His Will.
          ------------------------------------------------
          Verily I say unto thee, the tax collectors and the prostitutes go into the Kingdom of Heaven before you do.
          ------------------------------------------------
          The LORD hath appeared of old unto me, saying. YEA, I have loved thee with an everlasting love; therefore with LOVINGKINDESS have I DRAWN THEE.
          Jeremiah 31:3

          Comment


          • #6
            Originally posted by Cyberseeker View Post
            Thanks for answering. I guess what Im trying to think through is concerning unbelievers. How can unbelievers be judged guilty if they are not under a legal system that defines sin?
            Consider these......
            Rom 2:14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
            Rom 2:15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another

            Rom 3:19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
            All the world is not, and has never been, under the Mosaic law. That was for Israel.
            All the world is under the law written on their heart.
            No believer, whether Jew or Gentile, is under the Mosaic law.
            ALL are under the natural/heart/conscience law. It is the law we will all be judged by.

            Comment


            • #7
              Originally posted by Sirus
              ALL are under the natural/heart/conscience law. It is the law we will all be judged by.
              Thanks Sirus,

              I do believe you have hit the nail on the head.
              "Your name and renown
              is the desire of our hearts."
              (Isaiah 26:8)

              Comment


              • #8
                Originally posted by Cyberseeker View Post
                Thanks for answering. I guess what Im trying to think through is concerning unbelievers. How can unbelievers be judged guilty if they are not under a legal system that defines sin?

                He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
                (Joh 3:18)
                ♪ Each day may Christ become clearer, His Cross dearer, Our Hope nearer. ♫

                Comment


                • #9
                  Originally posted by Sirus View Post
                  Consider these......
                  Rom 2:14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
                  Rom 2:15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another

                  Rom 3:19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
                  All the world is not, and has never been, under the Mosaic law. That was for Israel.
                  All the world is under the law written on their heart.
                  No believer, whether Jew or Gentile, is under the Mosaic law.
                  ALL are under the natural/heart/conscience law. It is the law we will all be judged by.
                  Great post!

                  Now if Cyberseeker don't mind, I would like to expand the OP.

                  If those who are under the law, are judged by the law, what is that judgment for failing to keep the whole of the law?

                  If I have this right, Paul said that the law came in to expose sin as sin. He also said that the law did not annul the promise.

                  If a person is a child of the promise, that God had made with the fathers, and he does not receive the promise, because he broke the law. Then wouldn't that mean that the law annulled the promise?

                  Comment

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