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  • John 9:3

    So, came across this verse and it perplexes me a bit:

    John 9:3(NIV)

    "Neither this man nor his parents sinned," said Jesus, "but this happened so that the work of God might be displayed in his life.

    What I am not understanding is what about the disabled that are never healed? From the context of what I have read, only if the disabled are healed to they really honor God and if that is not true, would it not make more sense for a fully capable person to do things to honor God than someone born lame?

    I am playing the Devils Advocate a bit, but I am wanting to develop a full understanding of what is being said here by looking at it from every angle.

    Thanks

  • #2
    Originally posted by Romber View Post
    So, came across this verse and it perplexes me a bit:

    John 9:3(NIV)

    "Neither this man nor his parents sinned," said Jesus, "but this happened so that the work of God might be displayed in his life.

    What I am not understanding is what about the disabled that are never healed? From the context of what I have read, only if the disabled are healed to they really honor God and if that is not true, would it not make more sense for a fully capable person to do things to honor God than someone born lame?

    I am playing the Devils Advocate a bit, but I am wanting to develop a full understanding of what is being said here by looking at it from every angle.

    Thanks
    Hi!!!Romber greetings;
    If a person has been born disable and it was not due to his parents nor because the child sinned,it was already a manifestation of the works of God.Neither his parents did not wish it to happen.
    In my view this incident put to trial the faith of the parent's child on how they will react on the will
    of God.Exo.4:11 And the Lord said unto him,Who hath made man's mouth? or who makes the dumb,or the deaf,or the seeing,or the blind?have not I the Lord?
    Job 2:9-10 Then said his wife unto him,Dost thou retain thine integrity?curse God and die.
    v.10) but he said unto her,Thou speakest as one of the foolish women speaketh.What? Shall we
    receive good at the hand of God,and shall we not receive evil?in all this did not Job sin with lips.
    Matt.19:13-14 Then were there brought unto him little children,that he should put his hand on them,and pray:and the disciples rebuked them.
    v.14)But Jesus said,Suffer little children, forbid them not,to come unto me:for such is the kingdom
    of heaven.In time of judgement this disabled will stand infront of the Lord because they were liken to child that had not sin.Rom. 9:11 (For the children not yet born,neither having done ay good or evil,that the purpose of God according to election might stand,not of works,but him that calleth
    Hope this help.
    in love of Christ./RT.

    Comment


    • #3
      Originally posted by Romber View Post
      So, came across this verse and it perplexes me a bit:

      John 9:3(NIV)

      "Neither this man nor his parents sinned," said Jesus, "but this happened so that the work of God might be displayed in his life.

      What I am not understanding is what about the disabled that are never healed? From the context of what I have read, only if the disabled are healed to they really honor God and if that is not true, would it not make more sense for a fully capable person to do things to honor God than someone born lame?
      Jesus is saying that (1) he wasn't lame because he did anything wrong, and (2) he wasn't lame because his parents did anything wrong, but (3) he was lame because it was part of God's plan. The words "so that the work of God might be displayed in his life" mean that Jesus would be able to show his power by healing him.

      Comment


      • #4
        Originally posted by Romber View Post
        So, came across this verse and it perplexes me a bit:

        John 9:3(NIV)

        "Neither this man nor his parents sinned," said Jesus, "but this happened so that the work of God might be displayed in his life.

        What I am not understanding is what about the disabled that are never healed? From the context of what I have read, only if the disabled are healed to they really honor God and if that is not true, would it not make more sense for a fully capable person to do things to honor God than someone born lame?

        I am playing the Devils Advocate a bit, but I am wanting to develop a full understanding of what is being said here by looking at it from every angle.

        Thanks
        There are many fully capable people around in the world today but they do not always honour God. God is honored in our lives when we honour him regardless of our situation or circumstances.

        A person who is crippled for life can honour God by living out his faith in God's goodness, for giving thanks to God for the way he was made and even for his disabilities, and gives him opportunities to talk to people about God. He honours God when people see Christlikeness in him despite his situation, and people will thus give glory to the God that he serves.
        Tit 3:2 to speak evil of no one, to avoid quarreling, to be gentle, and to show perfect courtesy toward all people.

        Comment


        • #5
          Originally posted by Radagast View Post
          Jesus is saying that (1) he wasn't lame because he did anything wrong, and (2) he wasn't lame because his parents did anything wrong, but (3) he was lame because it was part of God's plan. The words "so that the work of God might be displayed in his life" mean that Jesus would be able to show his power by healing him.
          good post and spot on!
          Many appear Righteous and Just because they say 'yes' to Jesus Christ , yet they don't do His Will.
          ------------------------------------------------
          Verily I say unto thee, the tax collectors and the prostitutes go into the Kingdom of Heaven before you do.
          ------------------------------------------------
          The LORD hath appeared of old unto me, saying. YEA, I have loved thee with an everlasting love; therefore with LOVINGKINDESS have I DRAWN THEE.
          Jeremiah 31:3

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          • #6
            Ok, that makes a lot more sense now. Thanks everyone!

            Comment


            • #7
              It's interesting that the passage says the man wasn't born with his condition because of any sin, yet you have to ask . . . if sin were not present in this world would he have ever been born that way? I think the passage more than likely means that it wasn't for a particular or specific sin that this man was born this way; however, a sin-filled and sin-fallen world is indeed why he was born this way. If there wasn't any sin in the world, and there wasn't any corruption . . . this man would have never been born with such an ailment.
              "What you do does not define who you are; it's who you are that defines what you do."

              -- Dr. Neil T. Anderson

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