So, I've been reading through the book of Hosea, and I came across this verse:
Hosea 11:5 He (Israel) shall not return to the land of Egypt
But the Assyrian shall be his king
because they refused to repent
This is how it reads in the New King James version, which I typically use. Well, I wanted to compare translations for another verse, and I referenced the New Revised Standard version, in addition to the NKJV....just so I could get a broader scope. Here's how verse 5 reads in the NRSV:
They shall return to the land of Egypt,
and Assyria shall be their king,
because they have refused to return to me
So, according to the NKJV, Israel shall not return to Egypt, while the NRSV says that Israel shall return. This seems like a pretty blatant contradiction to me. What's the deal with this discrepancy, and which version is correct?!
Could someone please explain this? Is the NRSV a bad translation, or is there something deeper that I'm missing?
Thank you
Hosea 11:5 He (Israel) shall not return to the land of Egypt
But the Assyrian shall be his king
because they refused to repent
This is how it reads in the New King James version, which I typically use. Well, I wanted to compare translations for another verse, and I referenced the New Revised Standard version, in addition to the NKJV....just so I could get a broader scope. Here's how verse 5 reads in the NRSV:
They shall return to the land of Egypt,
and Assyria shall be their king,
because they have refused to return to me
So, according to the NKJV, Israel shall not return to Egypt, while the NRSV says that Israel shall return. This seems like a pretty blatant contradiction to me. What's the deal with this discrepancy, and which version is correct?!
Could someone please explain this? Is the NRSV a bad translation, or is there something deeper that I'm missing?
Thank you
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