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  • Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

    Christ atoning sacrifice covers all sins; however, it was to atone for one man's sins: i.e., Adam's. Adam's sin resulted in condemnation for all. Christ's atoning sacrifice is similar but with one main difference. Adam's sin resulted in condemnation for all. We all inherit Adam's sinful nature with no choice in the matter: we are slaves. Christ's atonement and forgiveness are available to all who believe and call on Him: we must choose salvation. By his blood we are set free from bondage to Adam's sinful nature.
    "So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous."–Romans 5:18-19.

  • #2
    Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

    Originally posted by pdun459 View Post
    Christ atoning sacrifice covers all sins; however, it was to atone for one man's sins: i.e., Adam's. Adam's sin resulted in condemnation for all. Christ's atoning sacrifice is similar but with one main difference. Adam's sin resulted in condemnation for all. We all inherit Adam's sinful nature with no choice in the matter: we are slaves. Christ's atonement and forgiveness are available to all who believe and call on Him: we must choose salvation. By his blood we are set free from bondage to Adam's sinful nature.
    "So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous."–Romans 5:18-19.
    No, Paul is just comparing the *effect* of the works of Adam and the works of Christ. Both affected all men. The application of Christ's atonement was clearly beyond that of just Adam's sin. When Jesus died on the cross, who committed these sins against him? Whose sins were being forgiven when he said, "forgive them?"

    It was the sins of Israel that put Jesus on the cross, as well as the sin of Pilate, Roman governor. But the Scriptures indicate that Jesus' forgiveness extends beyond the Jews to include all men. And that's because Jesus said to take the good news of the Gospel of his atonement to the ends of the earth. It was for all.

    Comment


    • #3
      Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

      Originally posted by pdun459 View Post
      Christ atoning sacrifice covers all sins; however, it was to atone for one man's sins: i.e., Adam's. Adam's sin resulted in condemnation for all. Christ's atoning sacrifice is similar but with one main difference. Adam's sin resulted in condemnation for all. We all inherit Adam's sinful nature with no choice in the matter: we are slaves. Christ's atonement and forgiveness are available to all who believe and call on Him: we must choose salvation. By his blood we are set free from bondage to Adam's sinful nature.

      "So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous."–Romans 5:18-19.
      Nice post and subject here pdun459.
      God bless ya !

      I was fascinated yesterday by what a God-honored chrisrian mentor of mine (the retired head pastor of my hub of local churches)
      I was fascinated by what he brought up briefly when he was speaking on another unrelated subject.

      What he brought up or referred to was: who are the wages of sin paid too.
      And postulated that those wages are paid first to God to supplicate God's requirement(s) of justice.

      But (this is the part that fascinated me), but a payment is also by default required by definition in the form of a
      ransom to release us from sin's grip, the ransom payment going to satan.

      Anyway, this is all I could currently summon in response to your post here, but I will more than likely be pondering over it all day now.

      Thanks pdun459
      Don't seek too much knowledge. You just may be putting more weight on your shoulders than you're able to bare.
      Let God be the one to decide how quickly you grow

      Comment


      • #4
        Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

        Originally posted by Jacob's Ladder View Post
        Nice post and subject here pdun459.
        God bless ya !


        I was fascinated yesterday by what a God-honored chrisrian mentor of mine (the retired head pastor of my hub of local churches)
        I was fascinated by what he brought up briefly when he was speaking on another unrelated subject.


        What he brought up or referred to was: who are the wages of sin paid too.
        And postulated that those wages are paid first to God to supplicate God's requirement(s) of justice.

        But (this is the part that fascinated me), but a payment is also by default required by definition in the form of a
        ransom to release us from sin's grip, the ransom payment going to satan.


        Anyway, this is all I could currently summon in response to your post here, but I will more than likely be pondering over it all day now.


        Thanks pdun459
        Over all(not in summary though) Jesus Christ's cross-shed-Blood was shed only to cover us/our-sin from the wrath of God the Father, period.
        Hence the popularly contested interpretation of the phase: fear of God.
        Don't seek too much knowledge. You just may be putting more weight on your shoulders than you're able to bare.
        Let God be the one to decide how quickly you grow

        Comment


        • #5
          Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

          Originally posted by Jacob's Ladder View Post
          Nice post and subject here pdun459.
          God bless ya !

          I was fascinated yesterday by what a God-honored chrisrian mentor of mine (the retired head pastor of my hub of local churches)
          I was fascinated by what he brought up briefly when he was speaking on another unrelated subject.

          What he brought up or referred to was: who are the wages of sin paid too.
          And postulated that those wages are paid first to God to supplicate God's requirement(s) of justice.

          But (this is the part that fascinated me), but a payment is also by default required by definition in the form of a
          ransom to release us from sin's grip, the ransom payment going to satan.

          Anyway, this is all I could currently summon in response to your post here, but I will more than likely be pondering over it all day now.

          Thanks pdun459
          No payment is due Satan, unless this is viewed as something God originally promised him. If God promised Satan something, then God owes it *to Himself* to follow through with His own Plan.

          This is not what is traditionally thought of as a payment due to someone. God only owes Himself. Nobody is qualified to claim God owes him anything.

          The atonement process is spelled out both under the Law and in the NT. It is the word of God granting forgiveness on the basis of certain actions. In the OT it was a matter of attending to the requirements of the Law. In the NT it is simply the act of Christ dying due to the sins of Man being committed against him, and his forgiving humanity in general. This forgiveness in the NT, of course, requires repentance on the part of those who wish to receive it.

          Nothing is owed Man in this matter of NT atonement. It was purely the matter of following through with God's original plan, and reconciling the problem of human sin that occurred along the way.

          Comment


          • #6
            Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

            I like to think of Atonement this way. God created a highway from the Garden to Eternal Paradise. There was an obstacle along the way, which was the disqualification of human sin. Jesus died, due to that human sin committed against him, was raised from the dead, and proceeded to continue to build that highway to Eternal Paradise.

            Comment


            • #7
              Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

              Originally posted by randyk View Post
              No payment is due Satan, unless this is viewed as something God originally promised him. If God promised Satan something, then God owes it *to Himself* to follow through with His own Plan.

              This is not what is traditionally thought of as a payment due to someone. God only owes Himself. Nobody is qualified to claim God owes him anything.

              The atonement process is spelled out both under the Law and in the NT. It is the word of God granting forgiveness on the basis of certain actions. In the OT it was a matter of attending to the requirements of the Law. In the NT it is simply the act of Christ dying due to the sins of Man being committed against him, and his forgiving humanity in general. This forgiveness in the NT, of course, requires repentance on the part of those who wish to receive it.

              Nothing is owed Man in this matter of NT atonement. It was purely the matter of following through with God's original plan, and reconciling the problem of human sin that occurred along the way.
              I think I 100% understand what you are expressing here.
              But,
              The key word to ponder here is "ransom" as to why the word ransom was used in our bibles to describe our remedy that Christ "remedied" for us by His willing sacrifice of Himself on the cross.
              Don't seek too much knowledge. You just may be putting more weight on your shoulders than you're able to bare.
              Let God be the one to decide how quickly you grow

              Comment


              • #8
                Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

                Originally posted by Jacob's Ladder View Post
                I think I 100% understand what you are expressing here.
                But,
                The key word to ponder here is "ransom" as to why the word ransom was used in our bibles to describe our remedy that Christ "remedied" for us by His willing sacrifice of Himself on the cross.
                No doubt God required (of Himself) a cost, and that was His enduring of our sins while forgiving those sins. In order to redeem humanity Christ had to come down to earth to complete in human history that which Man had failed to do. And in coming down to earth he had to enter into the environment that God Himself had imposed upon mankind, which were the fallen conditions that sinful Mankind deserved.

                So Jesus came down to our sinful environment and suffered what that sinful environment meted out. But he rose from the dead and continues to administer through men, by Grace, his own works of righteousness, to complete that which sinful men failed to do.

                The atonement, therefore, was not just Christ's entering into our fallen World and suffering death. It was also his rising from the dead and producing in us a righteousness that is beyond blame and capable of doing what Man was originally called to do.

                Comment


                • #9
                  Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

                  Originally posted by Jacob's Ladder View Post
                  I think I 100% understand what you are expressing here.
                  But,
                  The key word to ponder here is "ransom" as to why the word ransom was used in our bibles to describe our remedy that Christ "remedied" for us by His willing sacrifice of Himself on the cross.
                  The Father was the only one the debt was owed to, not Satan.

                  Originally posted by randyk View Post
                  No doubt God required (of Himself) a cost, and that was His enduring of our sins while forgiving those sins. In order to redeem humanity Christ had to come down to earth to complete in human history that which Man had failed to do. And in coming down to earth he had to enter into the environment that God Himself had imposed upon mankind, which were the fallen conditions that sinful Mankind deserved.

                  So Jesus came down to our sinful environment and suffered what that sinful environment meted out. But he rose from the dead and continues to administer through men, by Grace, his own works of righteousness, to complete that which sinful men failed to do.

                  The atonement, therefore, was not just Christ's entering into our fallen World and suffering death. It was also his rising from the dead and producing in us a righteousness that is beyond blame and capable of doing what Man was originally called to do.
                  Amen... this X1000.

                  Comment


                  • #10
                    Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

                    Originally posted by Pbminimum View Post
                    The Father was the only one the debt was owed to, not Satan.
                    Yes He is the only one the dept was paid to:
                    Originally posted by Jacob's Ladder View Post
                    Over all(not in summary though) Jesus Christ's cross-shed-Blood was shed only to cover us/our-sin from the wrath of God the Father, period.
                    Hence the popularly contested interpretation of the phase: fear of God.
                    It's Okay Pbminimum , maybe you just do not understand the definition of the word "fascination" ?
                    RE:
                    Originally posted by Jacob's Ladder View Post
                    Nice post and subject here pdun459.
                    God bless ya !

                    I was fascinated yesterday by what a God-honored chrisrian mentor of mine (the retired head pastor of my hub of local churches)
                    I was fascinated by what he brought up briefly when he was speaking on another unrelated subject.

                    What he brought up or referred to was: who are the wages of sin paid too.
                    And postulated that those wages are paid first to God to supplicate God's requirement(s) of justice.

                    But (this is the part that "fascinated" me), but a payment is also by default required by definition in the form of a
                    ransom to release us from sin's grip, the ransom payment going to satan.

                    Anyway, this is all I could currently summon in response to your post here, but I will more than likely be pondering over it all day now.

                    Thanks pdun459
                    Don't seek too much knowledge. You just may be putting more weight on your shoulders than you're able to bare.
                    Let God be the one to decide how quickly you grow

                    Comment


                    • #11
                      Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

                      Originally posted by randyk View Post
                      No doubt God required (of Himself) a cost, and that was His enduring of our sins while forgiving those sins. In order to redeem humanity Christ had to come down to earth to complete in human history that which Man had failed to do. And in coming down to earth he had to enter into the environment that God Himself had imposed upon mankind, which were the fallen conditions that sinful Mankind deserved.


                      So Jesus came down to our sinful environment and suffered what that sinful environment meted out. But he rose from the dead and continues to administer through men, by Grace, his own works of righteousness, to complete that which sinful men failed to do.


                      The atonement, therefore, was not just Christ's entering into our fallen World and suffering death. It was also his rising from the dead and producing in us a righteousness that is beyond blame and capable of doing what Man was originally called to do.
                      Although I do agree with what you share here in the quote above.
                      I do not see where I have posted anything nor have made an effort to even have insinuated a contradiction to what you've shared in the quote above.
                      Or, maybe you see me as knowingly or unknowingly contradicting it somewhere ?

                      Unless I am missing something big here, I think you are just trying to redirect and deflect away from the current matter that was actually being discussed by you and I in this thread's last few post here.

                      So Randy, rather than making an effort to deflect, would you care to actually reply to the last point that I made in your only posted disagreement with me here ?
                      ie:
                      Jacob's Ladder:

                      I think I 100% understand what you are expressing here.
                      But,
                      The key word to ponder here is "ransom" as to why the word ransom was used in our bibles to describe our remedy that Christ "remedied" for us by His willing sacrifice of Himself on the cross ?







                      Re:
                      Originally posted by randyk View Post
                      No payment is due Satan, unless this is viewed as something God originally promised him. If God promised Satan something, then God owes it *to Himself* to follow through with His own Plan.


                      This is not what is traditionally thought of as a payment due to someone. God only owes Himself. Nobody is qualified to claim God owes him anything.


                      The atonement process is spelled out both under the Law and in the NT. It is the word of God granting forgiveness on the basis of certain actions. In the OT it was a matter of attending to the requirements of the Law. In the NT it is simply the act of Christ dying due to the sins of Man being committed against him, and his forgiving humanity in general. This forgiveness in the NT, of course, requires repentance on the part of those who wish to receive it.


                      Nothing is owed Man in this matter of NT atonement. It was purely the matter of following through with God's original plan, and reconciling the problem of human sin that occurred along the way.
                      Jacob's Ladder:
                      I think I 100% understand what you are expressing here.
                      But,
                      The key word to ponder here is "ransom" as to why the word ransom was used in our bibles to describe our remedy that Christ "remedied" for us by His willing sacrifice of Himself on the cross.






                      Re:
                      Originally posted by Jacob's Ladder View Post
                      Nice post and subject here pdun459.
                      God bless ya !


                      I was fascinated yesterday by what a God-honored chrisrian mentor of mine (the retired head pastor of my hub of local churches)
                      I was fascinated by what he brought up briefly when he was speaking on another unrelated subject.


                      What he brought up or referred to was: who are the wages of sin paid too.
                      And postulated that those wages are paid first to God to supplicate God's requirement(s) of justice.

                      But (this is the part that fascinated me), but a payment is also by default required by definition in the form of a
                      ransom to release us from sin's grip, the ransom payment going to satan.


                      Anyway, this is all I could currently summon in response to your post here, but I will more than likely be pondering over it all day now.


                      Thanks pdun459
                      Don't seek too much knowledge. You just may be putting more weight on your shoulders than you're able to bare.
                      Let God be the one to decide how quickly you grow

                      Comment


                      • #12
                        Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

                        Thank God for the blood of Jesus Christ! Praise His wonderful name!

                        Comment


                        • #13
                          Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

                          I was stimulated to start thinking about this question after reading Christianity For Beginners by Mike Mezzalongo. I'm not trying to promote this book, just referencing it. In the question and answer section the following question is asked: How does the sacrifice of one pay for the sins of all? The answer follows:
                          "If Jesus were only a man, a good and holy man, his sacrifice could atone for himself or another. One man pays for one other person. But because Jesus is God, has a divine nature—the value of His life and thus sacrifice is different. As God, the sacrifice of His divine life is able to pay for the sins of all mankind."—pg. 69.

                          Then he quotes the following scripture verse:
                          "For Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit;"—I Peter 3:18.

                          Peter says Christ died for all which you can't really argue with. However, Mezzalongo's answer seems unsatisfactory in explaining the question. Christ's sacrifice does pay for all sins because the sins of all stem from Adam's original sin—and Christ came to atone for Adam's sin. He was perfect and divine, thus His sacrifice was acceptable to God: something no mortal human could accomplish. I believe he's on the right track when he says "One man pays for one other person."

                          I'm not dogmatic on this though. Anyone can believe whatever they feel led by the Spirit to believe. But this is what makes the most sense to me. If anyone has a different opinion and can show from scripture why they believe differently, I might possibly reconsider. I'm always ready to listen to scripture.

                          Comment


                          • #14
                            Re: Christ's atonement was for one sin–Adam's

                            Originally posted by Jacob's Ladder View Post
                            Although I do agree with what you share here in the quote above.
                            I do not see where I have posted anything nor have made an effort to even have insinuated a contradiction to what you've shared in the quote above.
                            Or, maybe you see me as knowingly or unknowingly contradicting it somewhere ?
                            I'm not sure I was exposing anything you said was wrong--I think I was just commenting. Based on what you said, we're probably in complete agreement! Sorry if I gave you the opposite impression! ;(

                            Comment

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