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Matthew 26:29,the unfinished passover seder and marriage supper of the Lamb

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  • #91
    Re: Matthew 26:29,the unfinished passover seder and marriage supper of the Lamb

    [QUOTE]
    Originally posted by ForHisglory View Post
    Agreement is good.


    If we go by the order of the rain, then the first rain mentioned is the latter, which is the spring rain, and the second rain mentioned is the former or Autumn rain.
    Now as this requires TWO separate events, one matching the latter, the other the former, then we note that Hosea has them in reverse order.
    So we have Jesus' first coming as the latter rain - this then means His second coming is the former rain.
    I don't think you should separate the latter rain and former rain,into two different events. The purpose of them appearing in such an order is to give us the season when the Lord comes unto us.


    To understand scripture you need to apply logic, to understand the meaning of words in there place etc. So it isn't ONLY logic, but logic applied to scripture.
    So your scripture of Hosea 6 speaks of Sukkot.
    However do you understand what Sukkot is about?
    Logic is not good enough. Like I said,why don't you give us more biblical evidence when you claim that second coming shall take place on Sukkot? And I never mentioned Hosea speaks of Sukkot. Where do you get this idea from? I have also told you from my previous post that it is my and many belief that Jesus is born on Sukkot,that is,God has tabernacled with men.


    You didn't seem to read what I put. Zech 10:1 is fulfilled. Zech 10:10 seems to speak of another return.
    Why would one verse is fulfilled,and the rest are waiting to be fulfilled? The whole chapter of Zechariah 10 speaks the future restoration of Israel. Read the headline on this attachment "Judah and Israel will be restored".

    http://biblehub.com/kjv/zechariah/10.htm

    Many do see Jesus being born during the Feast of Tabernacle. He may even of been circumcised on the 8th day of the Feast in Jerusalem.
    However that is speculation which may be correct, but is not demonstrably so from scripture.
    What we do know though is in Zech 14 it is the Feast of Booths that ALL nations must observe.
    Ezekiel 45 doesn't state what the Feasts specifically are for. It is your claim that the Feast of Sukkot is for His 1st Coming, yet in the NHNE it is His 2nd Coming which is important.
    Ezekiel's temple is the millennium temple. There are two feasts which are required to be observed.The feast of Passover,and the feast of Tabernacle. In Zechariah 14,Jesus demands all nations to come to Jerusalem to observe the Tabernacle during the millennium. Like I said,the feast of Passover is to remember his death on the cross. The feast of Tabernacle is to remember his birth to this world,that is,God indwelling in flesh. I think you should leave New Heaven and New Jerusalem aside,because this event doesn't take place until the thousand years is over.

    Comment


    • #92
      Re: Matthew 26:29,the unfinished passover seder and marriage supper of the Lamb

      [QUOTE=2ndcoming;3327735]

      You have made this statement in post #31.

      [ Yes. Jesus goes into tomb just before sundown on what we would call Wed. and arises at sundown on what we call Saturday. The women show up at just before sunrise on Sunday but Jesus was already risen. ]

      You didn't mention the name of Herbert Armstrong. But you follow his teaching that crucifixion takes place on Wednesday with resurrection on Saturday.
      In post 31 you asked the question about what I believed and I answered it an now you not only want to claim I follow someone I don;t even know but you accuse me of starting a subject just by answering your question. This is silly. The facts are the facts.

      There are more evidence to point to Jesus' return on season of spring based on the order of former rain and latter rain in scripture. Former rain is autumn rain,while latter rain is spring rain,because the rainy season in Israel always begins in November,ends in month of May.

      Hosea 6:1 Come, and let us return unto the LORD: for he hath torn, and he will heal us; he hath smitten, and he will bind us up.

      2 After two days will he revive us: in the third day he will raise us up, and we shall live in his sight.

      3 Then shall we know, if we follow on to know the LORD: his going forth is prepared as the morning; and he shall come unto us as the rain, as the latter and former rain unto the earth.

      Many Christians believe Hosea speaks of a prophecy. Two days is understood as two thousand years. In the third day which is the beginning of three thousand years,Jesus shall raise us up.And we shall live in his sight.

      But interesting point is when he shall come unto us as the rain,Hosea puts latter rain first (spring rain),and former rains later (autumn rain). My speculation is God wants us to know Jesus' return shall take place in season of spring.

      Zechariah 10:1 also speaks of the latter rain. "Ask ye of the LORD rain in the time of the latter rain". I shall elaborate on this tomorrow.
      Don't even know what this is about.

      Comment


      • #93
        Re: Matthew 26:29,the unfinished passover seder and marriage supper of the Lamb

        [QUOTE][QUOTE=CurtTN;3328504]
        Originally posted by 2ndcoming View Post

        In post 31 you asked the question about what I believed and I answered it an now you not only want to claim I follow someone I don;t even know but you accuse me of starting a subject just by answering your question. This is silly. The facts are the facts.
        You did mention you believe in Wednesday crucifixion,and Saturday resurrection. This is Hebert Armstrong's teaching. I was just wondering if you follow his teaching. Not a big deal.

        Don't even know what this is about.
        We were using the order of former rain and latter rain in scripture,to see if they bear any significance pointing to the season of Jesus' return.

        Comment


        • #94
          Re: Matthew 26:29,the unfinished passover seder and marriage supper of the Lamb

          Revelation 19:13 may have given us a clue as to what day the second coming is.

          Revelation 19:11 And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war. 12 His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself. 13 And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.

          "He was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood." The only time Jesus clothing is dipped with blood is on the day he was crucified. It is very interesting for Jesus to emphasize that on the day he returns,he shall be wearing a cloth with blood on it. He may be telling us the date he returns is associated with the Passover.

          Comment


          • #95
            Re: Matthew 26:29,the unfinished passover seder and marriage supper of the Lamb

            Originally posted by 2ndcoming View Post
            Revelation 19:13 may have given us a clue as to what day the second coming is.

            Revelation 19:11 And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war. 12 His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself. 13 And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.

            "He was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood." The only time Jesus clothing is dipped with blood is on the day he was crucified. It is very interesting for Jesus to emphasize that on the day he returns,he shall be wearing a cloth with blood on it. He may be telling us the date he returns is associated with the Passover.
            Woah! Jesus wasn't clothed in a vesture dripping with blood when He was crucified.
            His clothes had been taken off Him, for they divided His clothes up and cast lots for His robe.

            The blood could be a) His own blood, it seems contextually b) it is the blood of His enemies, but could be c) the blood of the saints.
            The problem with a) is that His blood speaks of salvation yet here he is riding out to kill.
            The problem with b) is that He is supposedly only now riding out, so how did He already have His enemies blood on Him.
            The problem with c) is?
            For me this speaks of Him avenging the blood of the saints and prophets:
            Rev 19:2 for his judgments are true and just; for he has judged the great prostitute who corrupted the earth with her immorality, and has avenged on her the blood of his servants."

            So I don't see that this passage speaks of Passover.

            Comment


            • #96
              Re: Matthew 26:29,the unfinished passover seder and marriage supper of the Lamb

              Originally posted by 2ndcoming View Post
              I don't think you should separate the latter rain and former rain,into two different events. The purpose of them appearing in such an order is to give us the season when the Lord comes unto us.
              As they are TWO separate events, then it is correct to separate them.
              Secondly you should have note that the order stated is the reverse order in which these rains fall. This therefore shows that the former rain will be fulfilled before the latter rain.

              Logic is not good enough. Like I said,why don't you give us more biblical evidence when you claim that second coming shall take place on Sukkot? And I never mentioned Hosea speaks of Sukkot. Where do you get this idea from? I have also told you from my previous post that it is my and many belief that Jesus is born on Sukkot,that is,God has tabernacled with men.
              Sorry, but without logic, everything you put is meaningless. What I am putting is meaningless. Logic simply means seeing what is written and then working out what it means. You cannot interpret scripture without logic. The word logic is derived form the word logos - which is sometimes translated as word. Jesus IS the logos. True logic comes from Him. So to say logic is not good enough means you don't grasp what logic is being used.
              I used the scripture YOU provided and showed how what it speaks of is NOT a Passover return but a Sukkot return. So if you want scriptures you can use Hosea 6, Zech 14, Dan 2, Rev 11 and others which speak of when He returns.

              Why would one verse is fulfilled,and the rest are waiting to be fulfilled? The whole chapter of Zechariah 10 speaks the future restoration of Israel. Read the headline on this attachment "Judah and Israel will be restored".
              http://biblehub.com/kjv/zechariah/10.htm
              Simple in Zech 10 it says:
              Zec 10:1 Ask rain from the LORD in the season of the spring rain, from the LORD who makes the storm clouds, and he will give them showers of rain, to everyone the vegetation in the field.
              Zec 10:2 For the household gods utter nonsense, and the diviners see lies; they tell false dreams and give empty consolation. Therefore the people wander like sheep; they are afflicted for lack of a shepherd.
              Zec 10:3 "My anger is hot against the shepherds, and I will punish the leaders; for the LORD of hosts cares for his flock, the house of Judah, and will make them like his majestic steed in battle.
              Zec 10:4 From him shall come the cornerstone, from him the tent peg, from him the battle bow, from him every ruler—all of them together.

              This is speaking of the Shepherd, the Cornerstone. It speaks of Jesus and His coming.

              Zec 10:6 "I will strengthen the house of Judah, and I will save the house of Joseph. I will bring them back because I have compassion on them, and they shall be as though I had not rejected them, for I am the LORD their God and I will answer them.
              Zec 10:7 Then Ephraim shall become like a mighty warrior, and their hearts shall be glad as with wine. Their children shall see it and be glad; their hearts shall rejoice in the LORD.
              Zec 10:8 "I will whistle for them and gather them in, for I have redeemed them, and they shall be as many as they were before.
              Zec 10:9 Though I scattered them among the nations, yet in far countries they shall remember me, and with their children they shall live and return.
              Zec 10:10 I will bring them home from the land of Egypt, and gather them from Assyria, and I will bring them to the land of Gilead and to Lebanon, till there is no room for them.

              Now here it speaks of bringing the house of Judah back. Back from where? It isn't about the return from exile in Babylon, because that has already happened.
              It is speaking of a future return.
              Did that happen when Jesus first came? No.
              So it is speaking of the Second Coming of Jesus.
              In order for there to be a Second Coming there had to be a first.
              Prophecy is full of this dual aspect of the Messiah. It is why the Jews were confused, because they read things like this and expected Jesus to fulfill them at His FIRST coming. When He wasn't doing that, then some rejected Him.

              So within this one prophecy we have a fulfillment by one person but separated due to the response of Judah to Him.

              Ezekiel's temple is the millennium temple. There are two feasts which are required to be observed.The feast of Passover,and the feast of Tabernacle. In Zechariah 14,Jesus demands all nations to come to Jerusalem to observe the Tabernacle during the millennium. Like I said,the feast of Passover is to remember his death on the cross. The feast of Tabernacle is to remember his birth to this world,that is,God indwelling in flesh. I think you should leave New Heaven and New Jerusalem aside,because this event doesn't take place until the thousand years is over.
              Is it? Possibly it is. I am yet to be convinced.
              You could be right about the feast of Passover, however this is linked to His First coming. His Second coming is connected to the Feast of Tabernacle. This is why Ezekiel mentions both, yet Zechariah speaks only of the one, which is to be observed by all nations. The time of His Rule on Earth - His smashing the kingdoms of this world and bringing His reign on the earth.
              God's dwelling in flesh 2,000 years ago won;t be as important as God dwelling in flesh NOW.

              Comment


              • #97
                Re: Matthew 26:29,the unfinished passover seder and marriage supper of the Lamb

                Originally posted by TheDivineWatermark View Post
                Let's consider also Joel 2:23, which says:

                "Be glad then, ye children of Zion, and rejoice in the Lord your God: for He hath given you the former [fall/early] rain moderately, and He will cause to come down for you the rain, the former [fall/early] rain, and the latter [spring] rain in the first month ['month' in italics]."

                http://biblehub.com/text/joel/2-23.htm

                So here, the order is "former/fall/early rain" listed first (and named twice), and then the "latter/spring rain" (and I believe the word "month" is correct, as in "the beginning [first/chief] of the year"). And the context of that chapter seems to be the events surrounding His 2nd Coming [to the earth].

                I do think it's possible that this [verse] is saying that both "former/fall/early rain" and "latter/spring rain" is involved in the time period [the 7-yrs/70th-Wk] leading UP TO His 2nd Coming to the earth, here (with that specific point in time being the "spring," based on a number of other passages, not just "rain" ones). I say, possible (for both [in some way] to be involved in that future time period, Israel's 70th Week [and the order listed here, seeming to confirm the final one [as listed here last] being "in the spring"]).

                [see also James 5:7]


                Adding this: speaking of James 5:7, someone has also pointed out that Psalm 126:6 is speaking of Jesus Himself,

                "He that goeth forth and weepeth, bearing precious seed, shall doubtless come again with rejoicing [see this word also in Psalm 30:5], bringing his sheaves with him." ["sheaf [H485]" - used only in Genesis 37:7 [4x there], Joseph's first dream (re: Christ's first coming)]
                Interesting points, yet which rain was Peter declaring as fulfilled in Acts 2? The former or the latter rain?
                Note also it speaks of this in connection with the 1st month.
                So I see Joel 2 initially fullfilled at Pentecost (with spring rains covering this whole period of time from Passover) yet there is a future fulfillment to come.

                As for bringing in the sheaves, this does speak of harvest, but that also speaks of the Feast of Ingathering, which is the Feast of Booths or Sukkot.

                Comment


                • #98
                  Re: Matthew 26:29,the unfinished passover seder and marriage supper of the Lamb

                  Originally posted by TheDivineWatermark View Post
                  And I'd meant to add, regarding this:
                  Not sure about that, according to this (from Biblehub):
                  http://biblehub.com/interlinear/hosea/6-2.htm
                  I do use the Interlinear, but I look at the actual Hebrew words, and sometimes the Greek from the LXX.
                  And when you use the same website and search for the same Hebrew, you find this is the only occurrence, however we do have 3 occurrences which are almost identical and in none of those is the word "us"
                  You see the interlinear actually says:
                  He will revive two days and on the third day will raise up and we shall live in His sight.

                  So the question is whether it is correct to interject the "us" into the word, when the Hebrew doesn't say it.
                  The LXX also doesn't support the word "us".

                  Comment


                  • #99
                    Re: Matthew 26:29,the unfinished passover seder and marriage supper of the Lamb

                    Originally posted by 2ndcoming View Post
                    After I answer some of your questions,I shall make a summary as concerning the title of this thread "unfinished Passover seder"'.
                    Concerning verse 23 "And he answered and said, He that dippeth his hand with me in the dish, the same shall betray me",it is further answered in John 13:25-26.
                    John 13:25 He then lying on Jesus' breast saith unto him, Lord, who is it? 26 Jesus answered, He it is, to whom I shall give a sop, when I have dipped it. And when he had dipped the sop, he gave it to Judas Iscariot, the son of Simon.
                    After Jesus dipped the sop,he gave it to Judas,in order to identify he is the betrayer. Do we see Jesus eating the sop with Judas here?
                    You missed the part which said "they" were eating. IOW if Jesus just took a sop and gave it to Judas without ever having eaten anything, this would be noticed and seen as strange. Why would Judas ONLY be given a sop. SO either Jesus gave a sop to everyone, which is an unwarranted speculation, or Jesus was eating with them, which the gospels state He was doing.

                    From John's account,we know that this meal lasted a long time.In John's account,during the meal,Jesus washed the disciples feet,Jesus predicted his betrayal,a new command was given,Jesus predicted Peter's denial,Jesus comforted the disciples,Jesus explained the way,the truth,and the life,Jesus promised the Holy Spirit,Jesus gave them peace,Jesus the true vine,Greatest love has no man than this,the Hatred of the world,Jesus' warning to disciples that they shall be killed,promise of Holy Spirit again,promise to them that their grief shall be turned into joy,Ask and they shall receive,prayers for the son,prayers for the disciples,prayer for all believers.

                    This is a very long sermon given by Jesus during the last meal.Why is it only John give such a detail of Jesus' sermon,while Matthew,Mark,and Luke omit it?
                    Why does any gospel have things in it that others don't? Why does Luke have both Luke 17 and Luke 21?
                    Each writer is writing with specific purposes and things they are highlighting. It is as you bring them together you get the full picture of what happened.

                    During the meal,when Jesus institutes the Lord's supper,the disciples did not understand what that mean.They have no knowledge of Jesus' crucifixion taken place soon,and his departure from them later on,the ascension.They remember the significance of the institution of Lord's supper later on. This is why when they wrote the event of last supper,their main focus is on the institution of Lord's supper,and the blood covenant Jesus made with them.It is not eating and drinking in their focus.
                    Agreed, yet IF Jesus had NOT eaten with them, then they ALL would have noted this, especially as Jesus had said He earnestly wanted to eat it with them.
                    So that would have stood out in their minds.

                    Matthew 26: 26 And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed it, and brake it, and gave it to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body. 27And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; 28For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. 29But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father's kingdom.

                    Mark 14:22 And as they did eat, Jesus took bread, and blessed, and brake it, and gave to them, and said, Take, eat: this is my body. 23And he took the cup, and when he had given thanks, he gave it to them: and they all drank of it. 24And he said unto them, This is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many. 25Verily I say unto you, I will drink no more of the fruit of the vine, until that day that I drink it new in the kingdom of God.

                    Luke 22:14 And when the hour was come, he sat down, and the twelve apostles with him. 15And he said unto them, With desire I have desired to eat this passover with you before I suffer: 16For I say unto you, I will not any more eat thereof, until it be fulfilled in the kingdom of God. 17And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and said, Take this, and divide it among yourselves: 18For I say unto you, I will not drink of the fruit of the vine, until the kingdom of God shall come. 19And he took bread, and gave thanks, and brake it, and gave unto them, saying, This is my body which is given for you: this do in remembrance of me. 20Likewise also the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed for you

                    Their main focus after many years when they wrote down this event is Jesus' institution of Lord's supper on that table,and the significance of the blood covenant Jesus has made with them. There are eating and drinking in place ,as they are commanded to eat a sacrificial Lamb,unleavened bread and wine. But their focus is the Lord's supper.
                    Indeed, and for each of them the saying was said ONCE for the bread and ONCE for the cup.
                    If Jesus had NOT eaten the Lord's Supper then this would have been clear to all.

                    It is just like when a wedding banquet is going on,the bridegroom stands up and makes a toast,prepare a speech. This is exactly what Jesus was doing. He probably stood up ,during the meal,or after,gave forth the command to them,by breaking a bread,and asked them to remember him. He did the same way to the cup. The focus here is after he instituted the Lord's supper with disciples,he emphasized he will not drink this wine with them until the day in his Father's kingdom. It also implies the final institution of Lord's supper shall be finished,consummated in heaven. This is why I wrote down my title of this thread as "unfinished Passover". And this consummation shall be complete in heaven,when we are invited to the marriage supper of the Lamb..

                    All my focus is the Lord's supper which he institutes ,did he finish it,while you focus is on eating and drinking. May be I didn't make myself clear at the beginning.
                    So if the bridegroom makes a toast and then doesn't drink it you don;t think that would be noticed? You don;t think the one who is earnestly wanting to eat with them, then doesn't eat, that this isn't noticed?
                    The fact that none of them outright say Jesus didn't eat, points to Jesus having eaten.
                    Also note it would have been very culturally wrong for the disciples to have been eating and Jesus not to.

                    By now you should understand my point and my focus. Be it the same cup or not,Jesus has already established his blood covenant through this cup. But I still believe this is the last cup.
                    Agreed it is the last cup.

                    Luke does record two cups. Without "this cup after the supper" being mentioned by Luke,we have no knowledge of the timing of the establishment of blood covenant from Matthew and Mark.
                    The timing is of the least importance, yet we know it from Paul also, and was known therefore seemingly by the church.

                    Luke 17 is in accord with the Olivert Discourse Jesus gives after he enters Jerusalem. Olivert Discourse is divided into two parts.First part is from Matthew 24:5-31,events that leads to Jesus' second coming. The latter part from verse 36 to 41 is the event rapture. When Jesus gave the sermon to Pharasies in Luke 17,he did the same thing except he only briefly touched on his second coming in verse 24. He has given much more details concerning the day Son of man shall be revealed/made known in the event of rapture,from verse 26 to 37. There is no contradiction between both.
                    Without going into the OD break down, you ignore that Luke 17 speaks specifically of verses which are stated in Matt 24:16 - 18 which you have just stated occur BEFORE His Second coming. In fact they are connected directly to the AoD.
                    As the part in Luke 17 which reflects the OD, it was NOT a sermon to the disciples:
                    Luk 17:22 And he said to the disciples, "The days are coming when you will desire to see one of the days of the Son of Man, and you will not see it.

                    You see Luke ties the events before Jesus comes as being the days when you will desire to see one of the days of the Son of Man, which ties into the topic which Jesus had explained to the Pharisees.
                    So two different speeches, one to Pharisees and the other to the Disciples, yet there is a topical connection which Luke makes which is why he places this part of the OD here. Jesus didn't say these words to the disciples twice.

                    You should do more research on the word soma. It has 142 occurrences in scripture. See the attachment yourself.
                    http://biblehub.com/greek/4983.htm
                    Not sure what you are expecting this attachment to show?
                    It simply shows that the word soma means body. This can be a living body or a dead body:
                    Mat 27:52 The tombs also were opened. And many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised,
                    Here we have dead bodies which are then raised to life.

                    Just because the same words appear again,it doesn't mean they speak of the same event. In Luke 17,Jesus didn't mention AOD. Like I have stated,verse 31 points us not to be so much concern of our earthly belongings when the Son of man is revealed to us. In Exodus 19,when Yahweh descent on mount Sinai,they heard a very loud trumpet that lasts for sometime. My speculation is when God sounds his trumpet on the day of rapture,it may be the same in Exodus 19. It is loud and may last for some duration. This duration is the heads up from God. Paul mentions the changing of our body in twinkling of an eye. But he didn't mention if there is few minutes lapse between the trumpet sound and our catching up to the sky. Going by the event in Exodus 19,I do believe God's trumpet shall have a short duration.
                    Here your argument refutes yourself, for we could say, just because a word is missing it doesn't mean it isn't speaking of the same thing.
                    Verse 31 does NOT speak of concern about our earthly things when Jesus returns.
                    That is simple nonsense for the following reasons:
                    a) If you are more concerned about worldly things, then it is TOO late when Jesus returns.
                    b) If you are concerned about Jesus' return, then you won;t be concerned about worldly things.
                    c) When Jesus returns it will not be possible to descend into the house to get anything, nor return to the field to get anything - unless you don;t think we will be raptured at the blowing of the trumpet at His return.
                    d) The passage clear speaks of fleeing and leaving. In then speaks of those taken and those left. The taken die.

                    Like I said,without Luke's account of this cup after supper,we have no knowledge of the timing of establishment of the blood covenant. There is a purpose for the cup being there.
                    Incorrect, we know from 1 Corr 11. However even without that we would still know that Jesus ate and drank at the Last Supper.
                    The cup does have a purpose, but it isn't to say Jesus didn't drink at the Last Supper.

                    Comment


                    • Re: Matthew 26:29,the unfinished passover seder and marriage supper of the Lamb

                      The Passover Seder was used that night to become engaged to His future Bride. The Bridegroom would layout all His promises for His Bride. If the bride accepted His proposal when He placed the cup in front of her she drank it. Judas had already left and the Lord told His future bride His promises to prepare her a place in the Fatherís house for her. That the Lord would return and He placed the cup of redemption in front of her and Hih disciples all drank out it. Hie enemies asked why His disciples did not fast and the Lord said the Bride could not fast with the Bridegroom present but the time was coming that the Bridegroom would be taken from her and she would fast then. The Lordís Supper is our fast as well as proclaiming our belief in all the Lord has promised.. but it will not be a fast forever for what began as a Passover Seder will end with the Wedding Supper of the Lamb

                      Comment

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