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Thread: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

  1. #106
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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Pbminimum View Post
    So no then , right ? If no , then how would the couple be aware that they were about to be unequally yoked according to your requirements for marriage ?
    When you really look at this entire thread and where the OP attempted to keep the topic "at"... my thought: Christians who are faithful in walking in the Spirit, will NEVER have sex first (fornicate) and then say AFTER the sex, they are in a covenant of marriage. Christians, who are faithful in walking in the Spirit WILL make oaths/promises/vows as they enter in a covenant of marriage and THEN consummate (seal) the marriage BY the intercourse that follows the oath/promises/vows which HAD begun the covenant.
    Slug1--out

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  2. #107
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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Pbminimum View Post
    So no then , right ? If no , then how would the couple be aware that they were about to be unequally yoked according to your requirements for marriage ?
    I think you did not read my answer precisely. "Unequally yoked" has NOTHING to do with marriage. You are posing a question having assumed something that does not exist. But let me jump ahead and give some sort of answer.

    Most serious scholars agree to the "Principle of First Mention" in the Bible. That is, the first mention of something usually sets the standard for later mentions of that same thing. So let us examine Adam and Eve. As Adam emerged from his deep sleep he was presented with Eve. What did God intend with Eve? He intended that the man He made would not be alone, and that this man would find a companion up to his standard. Two more things were constructed by God for this relationship. (1) The woman would COMPLIMENT the man. That is, they would not be the same. Their differences would be the road to a successful relationship. (2) God made an emotion in both called "love".

    Now Greek has four words for "love" and because they are close in meaning, they are fathomed mostly by the context. Suffice to say that ALL FOUR come into play when a man loves a woman. So the union between a male and a female is secured by;
    • The partners being about level in their "standard" or "capabilities". That is, a very intelligent man will hardly be satisfied by a woman of low intelligence and vise versa, and a neat and precise man will hardly team up with a slothful unhygienic lady.
    • The partners complimenting each other. What one has should fill a gap in their other one, and vise versa
    • The partners should have some form of love. In our Western society, physical attraction ("Eros" - Gk) usually starts the ball rolling. It is then followed by affection ("storge" - Gk), followed by soulish love ("Philia" - Gk) and should end with that deep divine love ("agape" - Gk) that has its source in God.

    As Adam and Eve beheld, and then held each other, they had all the requirements for a successful union. AND THIS ROAD TO MILLIONS OF SUCCESSFUL UNIONS IS STILL VALID TODAY. A successful marriage is based on common traits and differing traits with love and affection added.

    Now, we all know that there is no perfect marriage. The very differences in a couple, even those that compliment them, are also sources of tension. A man with leadership qualities is going to bang heads with a woman who has initiative, and a doctor who marries a NASA scientist is going to have frustrations. Other factors can play a role too. If the couple come from different upbringings, friction is guaranteed. So is culture a source of conflict. Language is too, and so is race. And finally, religion can be the biggest source of friction. But does God abolish marriage because of these differences? NO! The answer is love on the one side and self-denial on the other. This is the formula for success in Ephesians 5:22-33. The capable wife must step back and let her less capable husband lead, and the frustrated husband must set aside his dreams and passions in favor of his wife.

    The end of the matter is that marriage works the same way for us as it did for Adam and Eve. Nothing has changed. There are delights in marriage and there are thorns. Habits, culture, language, race, and background can equally delight and frustrate. But they are to be settled by self denial on both sides. And RELIGION IS NO DIFFERENT. If a Catholic man marries a Hindu girl, there is the potential for conflict. If a Baptist marries a Jewess, there is potential for conflict. The Baptist is a teetotaler. The Jewess has no such restraints. Her religion says in Deuteronomy 14:23-26 that she should give her tithe, "... for strong drink, or for whatsoever thy soul desireth: and thou shalt eat there before the LORD thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thine household". BUT THE MARRIAGE DOES NOT BEGIN NOR SURVIVE ON THESE THINGS.

    Marriage exists and survives because of
    1. Being in Love
    2. Sexual union
    3. Complimenting each other in attributes
    4. Putting the other's needs first

    It was so with Adam and Eve, and millions of other marriages LONG BEFORE THE LAW OF MOSES AND EVEN LONGER BEFORE CHRISTIANITY. Being of a different religion is a source of conflict just like any other difference, but marriage is not built on religion.

  3. #108
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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Walls View Post
    I think you did not read my answer precisely. "Unequally yoked" has NOTHING to do with marriage. You are posing a question having assumed something that does not exist. But let me jump ahead and give some sort of answer.

    Most serious scholars agree to the "Principle of First Mention" in the Bible. That is, the first mention of something usually sets the standard for later mentions of that same thing. So let us examine Adam and Eve. As Adam emerged from his deep sleep he was presented with Eve. What did God intend with Eve? He intended that the man He made would not be alone, and that this man would find a companion up to his standard. Two more things were constructed by God for this relationship. (1) The woman would COMPLIMENT the man. That is, they would not be the same. Their differences would be the road to a successful relationship. (2) God made an emotion in both called "love".

    Now Greek has four words for "love" and because they are close in meaning, they are fathomed mostly by the context. Suffice to say that ALL FOUR come into play when a man loves a woman. So the union between a male and a female is secured by;
    • The partners being about level in their "standard" or "capabilities". That is, a very intelligent man will hardly be satisfied by a woman of low intelligence and vise versa, and a neat and precise man will hardly team up with a slothful unhygienic lady.
    • The partners complimenting each other. What one has should fill a gap in their other one, and vise versa
    • The partners should have some form of love. In our Western society, physical attraction ("Eros" - Gk) usually starts the ball rolling. It is then followed by affection ("storge" - Gk), followed by soulish love ("Philia" - Gk) and should end with that deep divine love ("agape" - Gk) that has its source in God.

    As Adam and Eve beheld, and then held each other, they had all the requirements for a successful union. AND THIS ROAD TO MILLIONS OF SUCCESSFUL UNIONS IS STILL VALID TODAY. A successful marriage is based on common traits and differing traits with love and affection added.

    Now, we all know that there is no perfect marriage. The very differences in a couple, even those that compliment them, are also sources of tension. A man with leadership qualities is going to bang heads with a woman who has initiative, and a doctor who marries a NASA scientist is going to have frustrations. Other factors can play a role too. If the couple come from different upbringings, friction is guaranteed. So is culture a source of conflict. Language is too, and so is race. And finally, religion can be the biggest source of friction. But does God abolish marriage because of these differences? NO! The answer is love on the one side and self-denial on the other. This is the formula for success in Ephesians 5:22-33. The capable wife must step back and let her less capable husband lead, and the frustrated husband must set aside his dreams and passions in favor of his wife.

    The end of the matter is that marriage works the same way for us as it did for Adam and Eve. Nothing has changed. There are delights in marriage and there are thorns. Habits, culture, language, race, and background can equally delight and frustrate. But they are to be settled by self denial on both sides. And RELIGION IS NO DIFFERENT. If a Catholic man marries a Hindu girl, there is the potential for conflict. If a Baptist marries a Jewess, there is potential for conflict. The Baptist is a teetotaler. The Jewess has no such restraints. Her religion says in Deuteronomy 14:23-26 that she should give her tithe, "... for strong drink, or for whatsoever thy soul desireth: and thou shalt eat there before the LORD thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thine household". BUT THE MARRIAGE DOES NOT BEGIN NOR SURVIVE ON THESE THINGS.

    Marriage exists and survives because of
    1. Being in Love
    2. Sexual union
    3. Complimenting each other in attributes
    4. Putting the other's needs first

    It was so with Adam and Eve, and millions of other marriages LONG BEFORE THE LAW OF MOSES AND EVEN LONGER BEFORE CHRISTIANITY. Being of a different religion is a source of conflict just like any other difference, but marriage is not built on religion.
    Walls, the model of the covenant of marriage that you've been posting about... what is sexual fornication and when does/can this sin occur?
    Slug1--out

    ~Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men,~

    ~Honestly, the pain of persecution lets you KNOW you are still alive... IN Christ!~

    ~Colossians 1:28 Him we preach, warning every man and teaching every man in all wisdom, that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus.~


    ~"In the turmoil of any chaos, all it takes is that whisper that is heard like thunder over all the noise and the chaos seems to go away, focus returns and we are comforted in knowing that God has listened to our cry for help."~


  4. #109
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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Slug1 View Post
    When you really look at this entire thread and where the OP attempted to keep the topic "at"... my thought: Christians who are faithful in walking in the Spirit, will NEVER have sex first (fornicate) and then say AFTER the sex, they are in a covenant of marriage. Christians, who are faithful in walking in the Spirit WILL make oaths/promises/vows as they enter in a covenant of marriage and THEN consummate (seal) the marriage BY the intercourse that follows the oath/promises/vows which HAD begun the covenant.
    If your title had been; "What constitutes a Western Baptist Marriage" then your above statement is correct. But you limited yourself to the BIBLE, that is, "What constitutes BIBLICAL marriage". And then you do TWO THINGS;
    1. You did not bring a single verses for this thesis
    2. You made Adam and Eve's, and Isaac and Rekehah's and millions of pre- and post-flood marriages illegal and void.

    While you are entitled to your opinion, you would do well to use scripture to prove your point lest somebody, who has not seen the gravity of putting men's traditions above God and His Word, laughs.

  5. #110
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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Walls View Post
    I think you did not read my answer precisely. "Unequally yoked" has NOTHING to do with marriage. You are posing a question having assumed something that does not exist. But let me jump ahead and give some sort of answer.

    Most serious scholars agree to the "Principle of First Mention" in the Bible. That is, the first mention of something usually sets the standard for later mentions of that same thing. So let us examine Adam and Eve. As Adam emerged from his deep sleep he was presented with Eve. What did God intend with Eve? He intended that the man He made would not be alone, and that this man would find a companion up to his standard. Two more things were constructed by God for this relationship. (1) The woman would COMPLIMENT the man. That is, they would not be the same. Their differences would be the road to a successful relationship. (2) God made an emotion in both called "love".

    Now Greek has four words for "love" and because they are close in meaning, they are fathomed mostly by the context. Suffice to say that ALL FOUR come into play when a man loves a woman. So the union between a male and a female is secured by;
    • The partners being about level in their "standard" or "capabilities". That is, a very intelligent man will hardly be satisfied by a woman of low intelligence and vise versa, and a neat and precise man will hardly team up with a slothful unhygienic lady.
    • The partners complimenting each other. What one has should fill a gap in their other one, and vise versa
    • The partners should have some form of love. In our Western society, physical attraction ("Eros" - Gk) usually starts the ball rolling. It is then followed by affection ("storge" - Gk), followed by soulish love ("Philia" - Gk) and should end with that deep divine love ("agape" - Gk) that has its source in God.

    As Adam and Eve beheld, and then held each other, they had all the requirements for a successful union. AND THIS ROAD TO MILLIONS OF SUCCESSFUL UNIONS IS STILL VALID TODAY. A successful marriage is based on common traits and differing traits with love and affection added.

    Now, we all know that there is no perfect marriage. The very differences in a couple, even those that compliment them, are also sources of tension. A man with leadership qualities is going to bang heads with a woman who has initiative, and a doctor who marries a NASA scientist is going to have frustrations. Other factors can play a role too. If the couple come from different upbringings, friction is guaranteed. So is culture a source of conflict. Language is too, and so is race. And finally, religion can be the biggest source of friction. But does God abolish marriage because of these differences? NO! The answer is love on the one side and self-denial on the other. This is the formula for success in Ephesians 5:22-33. The capable wife must step back and let her less capable husband lead, and the frustrated husband must set aside his dreams and passions in favor of his wife.

    The end of the matter is that marriage works the same way for us as it did for Adam and Eve. Nothing has changed. There are delights in marriage and there are thorns. Habits, culture, language, race, and background can equally delight and frustrate. But they are to be settled by self denial on both sides. And RELIGION IS NO DIFFERENT. If a Catholic man marries a Hindu girl, there is the potential for conflict. If a Baptist marries a Jewess, there is potential for conflict. The Baptist is a teetotaler. The Jewess has no such restraints. Her religion says in Deuteronomy 14:23-26 that she should give her tithe, "... for strong drink, or for whatsoever thy soul desireth: and thou shalt eat there before the LORD thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thine household". BUT THE MARRIAGE DOES NOT BEGIN NOR SURVIVE ON THESE THINGS.

    Marriage exists and survives because of
    1. Being in Love
    2. Sexual union
    3. Complimenting each other in attributes
    4. Putting the other's needs first

    It was so with Adam and Eve, and millions of other marriages LONG BEFORE THE LAW OF MOSES AND EVEN LONGER BEFORE CHRISTIANITY. Being of a different religion is a source of conflict just like any other difference, but marriage is not built on religion.
    You are all around it. The things you say constitute biblical marriage could be carried out to the T...and they could be unequally yoked, or both lost as can be. Adam and Eve are an exception, as God specifically made EVE from ADAM. They were literally given to one another BY GOD.

    All's I'm saying is that biblically when a man and woman enter into matrimony, AS BELIEVERS , that they understand AND AGREE TO what God expects in the marriage. It's not that hard to grasp bro. And honestly I don't see your issue with that. Call it a vow, an understanding, an oath, I really don't care what the label is. Bottom line is that it is the biblical basis for marriage.

    NOT SIMPLY SEX.

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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Just thinking out loud. The relationship between Jesus and the church and a marriage between a man and woman are somewhat similar. I was wondering when this marriage was consummated. Was it when you asked the Lord into your life, saying yes or was it when the Holy Spirit indwelled you, becoming one with you.

  7. #112

    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Walls View Post
    I think you did not read my answer precisely. "Unequally yoked" has NOTHING to do with marriage. You are posing a question having assumed something that does not exist. But let me jump ahead and give some sort of answer.

    Most serious scholars agree to the "Principle of First Mention" in the Bible. That is, the first mention of something usually sets the standard for later mentions of that same thing. So let us examine Adam and Eve. As Adam emerged from his deep sleep he was presented with Eve. What did God intend with Eve? He intended that the man He made would not be alone, and that this man would find a companion up to his standard. Two more things were constructed by God for this relationship. (1) The woman would COMPLIMENT the man. That is, they would not be the same. Their differences would be the road to a successful relationship. (2) God made an emotion in both called "love".

    Now Greek has four words for "love" and because they are close in meaning, they are fathomed mostly by the context. Suffice to say that ALL FOUR come into play when a man loves a woman. So the union between a male and a female is secured by;
    • The partners being about level in their "standard" or "capabilities". That is, a very intelligent man will hardly be satisfied by a woman of low intelligence and vise versa, and a neat and precise man will hardly team up with a slothful unhygienic lady.
    • The partners complimenting each other. What one has should fill a gap in their other one, and vise versa
    • The partners should have some form of love. In our Western society, physical attraction ("Eros" - Gk) usually starts the ball rolling. It is then followed by affection ("storge" - Gk), followed by soulish love ("Philia" - Gk) and should end with that deep divine love ("agape" - Gk) that has its source in God.

    As Adam and Eve beheld, and then held each other, they had all the requirements for a successful union. AND THIS ROAD TO MILLIONS OF SUCCESSFUL UNIONS IS STILL VALID TODAY. A successful marriage is based on common traits and differing traits with love and affection added.

    Now, we all know that there is no perfect marriage. The very differences in a couple, even those that compliment them, are also sources of tension. A man with leadership qualities is going to bang heads with a woman who has initiative, and a doctor who marries a NASA scientist is going to have frustrations. Other factors can play a role too. If the couple come from different upbringings, friction is guaranteed. So is culture a source of conflict. Language is too, and so is race. And finally, religion can be the biggest source of friction. But does God abolish marriage because of these differences? NO! The answer is love on the one side and self-denial on the other. This is the formula for success in Ephesians 5:22-33. The capable wife must step back and let her less capable husband lead, and the frustrated husband must set aside his dreams and passions in favor of his wife.

    The end of the matter is that marriage works the same way for us as it did for Adam and Eve. Nothing has changed. There are delights in marriage and there are thorns. Habits, culture, language, race, and background can equally delight and frustrate. But they are to be settled by self denial on both sides. And RELIGION IS NO DIFFERENT. If a Catholic man marries a Hindu girl, there is the potential for conflict. If a Baptist marries a Jewess, there is potential for conflict. The Baptist is a teetotaler. The Jewess has no such restraints. Her religion says in Deuteronomy 14:23-26 that she should give her tithe, "... for strong drink, or for whatsoever thy soul desireth: and thou shalt eat there before the LORD thy God, and thou shalt rejoice, thou, and thine household". BUT THE MARRIAGE DOES NOT BEGIN NOR SURVIVE ON THESE THINGS.

    Marriage exists and survives because of
    1. Being in Love
    2. Sexual union
    3. Complimenting each other in attributes
    4. Putting the other's needs first

    It was so with Adam and Eve, and millions of other marriages LONG BEFORE THE LAW OF MOSES AND EVEN LONGER BEFORE CHRISTIANITY. Being of a different religion is a source of conflict just like any other difference, but marriage is not built on religion.
    Walls, your thoughts.

    Relative to; the "Principle of First Mention" of an idea.

    If the becoming, one flesh, the the man Adam and the woman taken from him, negated, Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us Matt 1:23 bringing about the need for redemption?

    Resulting in: But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. Gal 4:4,5
    Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS. Matt 1:24.25

    Consider:
    And the man knew Eve his wife, and she conceiveth and beareth Cain, and saith, 'I have gotten a man by Jehovah;' and she addeth to bear his brother, even Abel. And Abel is feeding a flock, and Cain hath been servant of the ground. Gen 4:1,2 YLT

  8. #113
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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Slug1 View Post
    Walls, the model of the covenant of marriage that you've been posting about... what is sexual fornication and when does/can this sin occur?
    Just to be precise, I do NOT propose any "Covenant" marriage. If you had the means, you can go back through every posting of mine and you will find the opposite.

    Fornication is when a man and woman join in sexual union but DO NOT CLEAVE TO EACH OTHER.
    • John and Amy are single. They mate and then part ways. THAT is fornication.
    • John is married to Jill. John has a one-night stand with Mary. THAT is fornication and adultery for he adulterates, or "corrupts" his marriage
    • John is married to Jill. He has a long lasting affair in which he mates with Mary weekly and then goes home to his wife. THAT is fornication.

    The old Emir of Qatar has three wives and twenty five children. Each wife is housed in his Palace and each is accorded equal status. On three different nights of the week he visits a different wife for conjugal pleasure. This is NOT fornication. He has "CLOVEN" to all three.

  9. #114
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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Kalahari View Post
    Just thinking out loud. The relationship between Jesus and the church and a marriage between a man and woman are somewhat similar. I was wondering when this marriage was consummated. Was it when you asked the Lord into your life, saying yes or was it when the Holy Spirit indwelled you, becoming one with you.

    Good point. But I really don't want to go the way of pre-destination. I believe that one cannot have the Holy Spirit without the conviction to receive Him first , so one must yield to God's will before receiving. Same as a marriage.

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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Walls View Post
    Just to be precise, I do NOT propose any "Covenant" marriage. If you had the means, you can go back through every posting of mine and you will find the opposite.

    Fornication is when a man and woman join in sexual union but DO NOT CLEAVE TO EACH OTHER.
    • John and Amy are single. They mate and then part ways. THAT is fornication.
    • John is married to Jill. John has a one-night stand with Mary. THAT is fornication and adultery for he adulterates, or "corrupts" his marriage
    • John is married to Jill. He has a long lasting affair in which he mates with Mary weekly and then goes home to his wife. THAT is fornication.

    The old Emir of Qatar has three wives and twenty five children. Each wife is housed in his Palace and each is accorded equal status. On three different nights of the week he visits a different wife for conjugal pleasure. This is NOT fornication. He has "CLOVEN" to all three.
    Define "cleave". Please make it more interesting than shacking up.

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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by percho View Post
    Walls, your thoughts.

    Relative to; the "Principle of First Mention" of an idea.

    If the becoming, one flesh, the the man Adam and the woman taken from him, negated, Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us Matt 1:23 bringing about the need for redemption?

    Resulting in: But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. Gal 4:4,5
    Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS. Matt 1:24.25
    I know I started this thought of the principle of first mention, so mea culpa. But may I ask you to start a new thread with these new ideas. Just so we don't derail this thread. Much obliged, and thank you.

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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Walls View Post
    Just to be precise, I do NOT propose any "Covenant" marriage. If you had the means, you can go back through every posting of mine and you will find the opposite.

    Fornication is when a man and woman join in sexual union but DO NOT CLEAVE TO EACH OTHER.
    • John and Amy are single. They mate and then part ways. THAT is fornication.
    • John is married to Jill. John has a one-night stand with Mary. THAT is fornication and adultery for he adulterates, or "corrupts" his marriage
    • John is married to Jill. He has a long lasting affair in which he mates with Mary weekly and then goes home to his wife. THAT is fornication.

    The old Emir of Qatar has three wives and twenty five children. Each wife is housed in his Palace and each is accorded equal status. On three different nights of the week he visits a different wife for conjugal pleasure. This is NOT fornication. He has "CLOVEN" to all three.
    If leaders in your church, followed the example what this Emir of Qatar sets... as according to God's intent for the marriage covenant between a man and a woman and allowed the members of your church to also follow this example... would you accept/condone it?
    Slug1--out

    ~Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men,~

    ~Honestly, the pain of persecution lets you KNOW you are still alive... IN Christ!~

    ~Colossians 1:28 Him we preach, warning every man and teaching every man in all wisdom, that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus.~


    ~"In the turmoil of any chaos, all it takes is that whisper that is heard like thunder over all the noise and the chaos seems to go away, focus returns and we are comforted in knowing that God has listened to our cry for help."~


  13. #118
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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Pbminimum View Post
    You are all around it. The things you say constitute biblical marriage could be carried out to the T...and they could be unequally yoked, or both lost as can be. Adam and Eve are an exception, as God specifically made EVE from ADAM. They were literally given to one another BY GOD.

    All's I'm saying is that biblically when a man and woman enter into matrimony, AS BELIEVERS , that they understand AND AGREE TO what God expects in the marriage. It's not that hard to grasp bro. And honestly I don't see your issue with that. Call it a vow, an understanding, an oath, I really don't care what the label is. Bottom line is that it is the biblical basis for marriage.

    NOT SIMPLY SEX.
    No. Not simply sex. You misrepresent me. Let's go over God's definition (not mine) AGAIN ... from the New Testament if you will.

    Matthew 19:5-6.
    5 "And said, For this cause shall a man (1) leave father and mother, and (2) shall cleave to his wife: and (3) they twain shall be one flesh?
    6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder."


    • NO VOWS
    • NO MAGISTRATE
    • NO CATHOLIC PRIEST
    • NO CEREMONY
    • NO RING
    • NO COVENANT

  14. #119
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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Kalahari View Post
    Just thinking out loud. The relationship between Jesus and the church and a marriage between a man and woman are somewhat similar. I was wondering when this marriage was consummated. Was it when you asked the Lord into your life, saying yes or was it when the Holy Spirit indwelled you, becoming one with you.
    Two theologies within this question:

    1) The Holy Spirit first indwells and redeems a person (consummation of a covenant) and then they can make an oath (statement of belief) as the relationship with God can begin.

    2) God wants a relationship so HE made the oath that for anyone who chooses to believe, can have covenant with Him and WHEN that choice is made (believe in Him), the covenant is consummated (sealed) by the Holy Spirit redeeming the person.
    Slug1--out

    ~Titus 2:11 For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men,~

    ~Honestly, the pain of persecution lets you KNOW you are still alive... IN Christ!~

    ~Colossians 1:28 Him we preach, warning every man and teaching every man in all wisdom, that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus.~


    ~"In the turmoil of any chaos, all it takes is that whisper that is heard like thunder over all the noise and the chaos seems to go away, focus returns and we are comforted in knowing that God has listened to our cry for help."~


  15. #120
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    Re: Does this constitute marriage according to the Bible?

    Quote Originally Posted by Slug1 View Post
    If leaders in your church, followed the example what this Emir of Qatar sets... as according to God's intent for the marriage covenant between a man and a woman and allowed the members of your church to also follow this example... would you accept/condone it?
    NO. In a previous posting, which I believe you acknowledged, I posted the following;

    Matthew 19:4-6;
    4 "And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male (SINGULAR) and female (SINGULAR),
    5 And said, For this cause shall a man (SINGULAR) leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his (SINGULAR) wife (SINGULAR): and they twain (NOT MORE THAN TWO) shall be one flesh?
    6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder."


    But just to spoil your day, and your Western Puritan sensibilities, I energetically state that the THREE women in the Emir of Qatar's life ARE HIS WIVES. Just as I energetically declare that BOTH Leah and Rachel WHERE THE WIVES OF JACOB, and just as I energetically state that Solomon's 700 wives WHERE HIS WIVES - BECAUSE (1) SCRIPTURE SAYS SO, AND (2) THEY FULFILLED THE REQUIREMENTS THAT GOD HIMSELF SET FORTH.

    If you you vehemently object, I suggest you take it up with God Who Himself laid forth these requirements.

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