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Thread: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

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    Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    In 2 Corinthians 12 Paul talks about being taken up to heaven and shown many future things. We read about many of these events in his epistles like the rapture or the man of lawlessness but why didnít Paul ever mention a thousand year reign of Christ on the earth?

    The early church seamed to know all that they needed to know about the future or end time events before the book of revelation was written from The gospels or Johnís and Paulís epistles and the books of Peter but none of them ever mentioned the thousand years do you wonder why?

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by marty fox View Post
    In 2 Corinthians 12 Paul talks about being taken up to heaven and shown many future things. We read about many of these events in his epistles like the rapture or the man of lawlessness but why didnít Paul ever mention a thousand year reign of Christ on the earth?

    The early church seamed to know all that they needed to know about the future or end time events before the book of revelation was written from The gospels or Johnís and Paulís epistles and the books of Peter but none of them ever mentioned the thousand years do you wonder why?
    Jesus prophesied the 2000 year gap from His 1st Advent until His Return and then His 1000 year Millennium reign in Luke 13:32. He used the word for 'day', but two witnesses inform us that in heaven, where Jesus is, a thousand years on earth is equal to 1 day in heaven. Psalms 90:4, 2 Peter 3:8. Hosea 6:2 also prophesies it. Revelation 20 reiterates it 6 times.
    That verse 32 is a prophecy is proved by Luke 13:33, where Jesus tells about His immediate plans.

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by marty fox View Post
    In 2 Corinthians 12 Paul talks about being taken up to heaven and shown many future things. We read about many of these events in his epistles like the rapture or the man of lawlessness but why didn’t Paul ever mention a thousand year reign of Christ on the earth?

    The early church seamed to know all that they needed to know about the future or end time events before the book of revelation was written from The gospels or John’s and Paul’s epistles and the books of Peter but none of them ever mentioned the thousand years do you wonder why?
    They never mention or allude to such a period because it doesn't exist. Paul directs our attention to the Lords own word and nothing else is needed to be written to us. 1thess 4 and 5.


    So where did Jesus allude to such a period ,so far and removed from the days of Noah concept he himself created.?
    And those castles made of sand....fall into the sea......eventually

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by Keraz View Post
    Jesus prophesied the 2000 year gap from His 1st Advent until His Return and then His 1000 year Millennium reign in Luke 13:32. He used the word for 'day', but two witnesses inform us that in heaven, where Jesus is, a thousand years on earth is equal to 1 day in heaven. Psalms 90:4, 2 Peter 3:8. Hosea 6:2 also prophesies it. Revelation 20 reiterates it 6 times.
    That verse 32 is a prophecy is proved by Luke 13:33, where Jesus tells about His immediate plans.
    Hi Keraz sorry but I donít think that was what Jesus was teaching at all but the fact is that there is no NT teaching of Jesus living on the earth for a thousand years in a time of peace

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by jeffweeder View Post
    They never mention or allude to such a period because it doesn't exist. Paul directs our attention to the Lords own word and nothing else is needed to be written to us. 1thess 4 and 5.


    So where did Jesus allude to such a period ,so far and removed from the days of Noah concept he himself created.?
    Agreed and nowhere

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by marty fox View Post
    In 2 Corinthians 12 Paul talks about being taken up to heaven and shown many future things. We read about many of these events in his epistles like the rapture or the man of lawlessness but why didnít Paul ever mention a thousand year reign of Christ on the earth?

    The early church seamed to know all that they needed to know about the future or end time events before the book of revelation was written from The gospels or Johnís and Paulís epistles and the books of Peter but none of them ever mentioned the thousand years do you wonder why?
    I don't get your point? Even Amils obviously believe in a thousand year reign. They just don't interpret it in a literal sense like Premils typically do, nor do they place it during a time post the 2nd coming, such as Premils typically do. If Paul taught zero about a thousand year reign, that has to also apply to Amils' take on this thousand year reign, that he never taught their take either. So why is there even a mention of a thousand year reign in Rev 20 if none of the other authors in the NT ever taught about such a reign, in any sense, whether literal, whether symbolic, or whatever?

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by marty fox View Post
    In 2 Corinthians 12 Paul talks about being taken up to heaven and shown many future things. We read about many of these events in his epistles like the rapture or the man of lawlessness but why didnít Paul ever mention a thousand year reign of Christ on the earth?

    The early church seamed to know all that they needed to know about the future or end time events before the book of revelation was written from The gospels or Johnís and Paulís epistles and the books of Peter but none of them ever mentioned the thousand years do you wonder why?
    If our Lord Jesus taught profusely about the Kingdom during His 3Ĺ year ministry, and Paul spent 14 years with the Lord under training on top of his training under Gamaliel concerning the prophets, like Daniel, Isaiah, Jeremiah and Ezekiel, all who speak much of the conditions when our Lord would dwell in Jerusalem as King, would it not be likely that Paul taught the Kingdom? So let us see if he did.

    Acts 14:22; "Confirming the souls of the disciples, and exhorting them to continue in the faith, and that we must through much tribulation enter into the kingdom of God."

    Acts 19:8; "And he went into the synagogue, and spake boldly for the space of three months, disputing and persuading the things concerning the kingdom of God."

    Acts 20:25; "And now, behold, I know that ye all, among whom I have gone preaching the kingdom of God, shall see my face no more."

    Acts 28:23; "And when they had appointed him a day, there came many to him into his lodging; to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus, both out of the law of Moses, and out of the prophets, from morning till evening."

    Acts 28:31; "Preaching the kingdom of God, and teaching those things which concern the Lord Jesus Christ, with all confidence, no man forbidding him."

    And then we have his letters. What of Romans 14:17, 1st Corinthians 6:9-10, 15:24, 50, Galatians 5:21, Ephesians 5:5, Colossians 4:11, 1st Thessalonians 2:12, 2nd Thessalonians 1:5, 2nd Timothy 4:1, and 18?

    What seems to be your question is; "why didn't Paul keep saying that this Kingdom he taught so prolifically was divided into the first one thousand years when our Lord must subdue and rule on the earth as we know it, and then rule for God into the everlasting future on the renewed earth"? Well, that is like asking why doesn't the Bible explain which earth it is talking about every time the earth is mentioned. It is assumed that the student of God's Word believes the definition and can safely apply it every time.

    Our Lord Jesus offers Israel the Kingdom OF Heaven (NOT the Kingdom IN Heaven), and His prayer is, in Matthew 6:10, "Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven." This short sentence does not need a MA to glean its meaning.
    1. It is God's Kingdom - a sphere where God's rule and instructions would be enforced
    2. It must still come. Come to where? Why, the same place that our Lord was standing when he said these words - the earth
    3. It has not yet come to earth for both Jew and Gentile disregard God's instructions
    4. God's will is not done on earth as it is in heaven otherwise the prayer is vain
    5. It is therefore both the FUTURE "Kingdom of God" and "Kingdom (out)OF Heaven" which must encompass the earth

    What is missing from this sentence is, (i) when will it come, and (ii) how long will it last?

    Well, the prophets can answer that. Daniel, speaking to the most fearsome of Gentile kings, ruler of the whole earth, in his language, Aramaic, predicts the transition from Gentile rule to a new regime in 2:44.

    "And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom, which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people, but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever."

    Again, no MA in language is needed, if one believes the plain language of the Holy Spirit, that;
    • Gentile rule, and progressively inferior rule, will at some sudden point in time, be changed by military action
    • This new regime will be effected by a "Stone" that is from a high place and exists by no human effort
    • This new regime will be from heaven for its initiator is heavenly
    • This new regime will remain for ever
    • This new regime will never be threatened
    • This new regime is not left to any person except the "Stone"

    Note that this prophecy is to a Gentile king who God designates as "gold". It takes place in Babylon, not Jerusalem. And it is written in the language of Gentile world power. Thus, this prophecy does not concern Israel. The "stone" that dashes earthly Gentile rule to powder and sets up heavenly rule forever, is a UNIVERSAL KING - not the King of the Jews. But, if the Kingdom from heaven is UNIVERSAL (for it replaces universal Gentile rule), then Israel will be included and this "Stone" will also be King of the Jews. Thus, the Kingdom out OF Heaven that will rule the whole earth will BEGIN when the "Stone" arrives on earth from on high.

    Having established that the Kingdom will begin when the "Stone" from on high arrives, and having established that His rule will be universal and having established that His rule, or Kingdom, will never end, all that remains is to see whether there are any details concerning the Kingdom where things might change. And surely we find TWO things that indicate radical change. They are;

    (1) In 1st Corinthians 15:25-28 ...
    25 "For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
    26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.
    27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him.
    28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all."


    That is, there will be a period of reign while all enemies are still active. So there will be a period when the new King of the earth must SUBDUE - the LAST BEING DEATH, and then will follow a period when all things are subdued. So there is a definite transition point in this Kingdom out OF Heaven. It is marked by the overcoming of death.

    (2) The earth over which this Kingdom presides will undergo a radical change. Revelation 21 introduces a "NEW" heaven and earth. The Greek rendered "NEW" means "RENEWED" or "MADE PRISTINE". That is, the object of rule has its past history and scars removed.

    And scripture puts these TWO THINGS TOGETHER as occurring 1,000 years after the "Stone" dashed Gentile rule to powder. In just a few verses, all within the same context, this transition from Subduing and Ruling to just Ruling takes place. It is Revelation Chapter 20 and the first verse of Chapter 21.
    • Christ rules for 1,000 years, and this 1,000 years ends in
    • The abolishment of all rebellion by a massive and decisive battle for the Capital of world rule - Jerusalem
    • The abolishment of death by a a general resurrection
    • The apportioning of just punishment to the culprits so that the earth must no more be cursed for their crimes - the White Throne Judgment
    • The RENEWING of Heaven and the Earth

    So, this Kingdom, being predicted and described at length in other parts of scripture, is the object of Paul's teaching. He ASSUMES that you are a faithful student of God's Words, and that you know that this Kingdom is EVERLASTING, but that it has a SUBDIVISION where the first 1,000 years of it will be for SUBDUING enemies. Have you ever considered how very clever of God it is that He does not keep repeating the subdivision of the kingdom in every mention of this Kingdom? If a man will not believe His Words in a few places, this man will not believe it in a hundred places. God does not waste words on the unfaithful. He is a God Who, after taking care to reveal something, shakes the dust from His feet and moves on when that which is obvious is disregarded.

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Originally posted by Walls
    it has a SUBDIVISION where the first 1,000 years of it will be for SUBDUING enemies.
    And you, that were....enemies Col.1:21

    we were enemies Rom.5:10

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by journeyman View Post
    And you, that were....enemies Col.1:21

    we were enemies Rom.5:10
    If the Kingdom starts at the coming of a "Stone" cut out without hands from a high place, then I, we, ...
    21 "..., that were sometime alienated and enemies in your mind by wicked works, yet now hath he reconciled
    22 In the body of his flesh through death, to present you holy and unblameable and unreproveable in his sight"
    (Colossians 1:21-22)

    ... are subdued by His love.

    "In His sight" means He has come and we stands before Him.

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by marty fox View Post
    In 2 Corinthians 12 Paul talks about being taken up to heaven and shown many future things. We read about many of these events in his epistles like the rapture or the man of lawlessness but why didnít Paul ever mention a thousand year reign of Christ on the earth?

    The early church seamed to know all that they needed to know about the future or end time events before the book of revelation was written from The gospels or Johnís and Paulís epistles and the books of Peter but none of them ever mentioned the thousand years do you wonder why?
    Paul probably wasn't given anything specific about what I call the Jewish Hope, the Age to Come, or the Messianic Age. Many Jews in the time of Christ would've known what the Kingdom of God referred to. And as I understand it, even the Jews, before Christianity, held to the Sabbath Millennial theory, or the sexta-septamillennial tradition. Apparently the Book of Jubilees, prior to Christ, and a few OT Scriptural passages, indicate the possibility that a "day" can be used as a symbol for a period of a thousand years. Paul was likely aware of this, but was more interested in communicating the basics of Christianity for the Gentile converts. That, in itself, was a huge task. John was given the job of bringing OT prophecy into the New Testament.

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by marty fox View Post
    Hi Keraz sorry but I donít think that was what Jesus was teaching at all but the fact is that there is no NT teaching of Jesus living on the earth for a thousand years in a time of peace
    Rev 20 is pretty clear. And is in the New Testament :
    6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by DurbanDude View Post
    Rev 20 is pretty clear. And is in the New Testament :
    6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
    But as I stated it doesn't say Jesus living on the earth in a time of peace

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by randyk View Post
    Paul probably wasn't given anything specific about what I call the Jewish Hope, the Age to Come, or the Messianic Age. Many Jews in the time of Christ would've known what the Kingdom of God referred to. And as I understand it, even the Jews, before Christianity, held to the Sabbath Millennial theory, or the sexta-septamillennial tradition. Apparently the Book of Jubilees, prior to Christ, and a few OT Scriptural passages, indicate the possibility that a "day" can be used as a symbol for a period of a thousand years. Paul was likely aware of this, but was more interested in communicating the basics of Christianity for the Gentile converts. That, in itself, was a huge task. John was given the job of bringing OT prophecy into the New Testament.
    But still the fact is that there is no NT teaching of Jesus living on the earth for a thousand years in a time of peace would that really be missing is it is true?

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by marty fox View Post
    But as I stated it doesn't say Jesus living on the earth in a time of peace
    What does it say then? Does it say anything about Jesus still being in heaven during the thousand years? Does it say anything about there not being a time of peace on the earth?

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    Re: Why didnít Paul teach a thousand year reign?

    Quote Originally Posted by marty fox View Post
    But still the fact is that there is no NT teaching of Jesus living on the earth for a thousand years in a time of peace would that really be missing is it is true?
    If that fact is initially hidden in the OT somewhere, then brought to light via Rev 20, why would the authors in the NT need to repeat what can already be found in the OT? Unless you haven't noticed, proportionally the OT involves more pages in the Bible than does the NT. Maybe the bulk of what was needing to be said was already said in the OT?

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